OCS Prelim 2024

GS-1

SET-D

QUESTION AND EXPLANATION

1. Match List – I with List – II and select from Code:

List – I (Name):

1. Madhusudan Das
2. Buxi Jagabandhu
3. Fakir Mohan Senapati
4. Krushna Chandra Gajapati

List – II (Activities):

1. Leader of Khurda Rebellion
2. Founder of Utkal Sammilani
3. Pioneer of Modern Odia literature
4. Played Key role in Odisha’s separate province formation

Codes:

1. a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4
2. a-2, b-1, c-3, d-4
3. a-4, b-2, c-1, d-3
4. a-1, b-3, c-4, d-2

Correct Answer: B (a-2, b-1, c-3, d-4)

Explanation:

Madhusudan Das founded Utkal Sammilani, Buxi Jagabandhu led the Khurda Rebellion, Fakir Mohan Senapati was the pioneer of modern Odia literature, and Krushna Chandra Gajapati played a key role in the formation of the separate province of Odisha.

a) Madhusudan Das: — 2. Founder of Utkal Sammilani

b) Buxi Jagabandhu: — 1. Leader of Khurda Rebellion

c) Fakir Mohan Senapati: — 3. Pioneer of Modern Odia literature

d) Krushna Chandra Gajapati: — 4. Played Key role in Odisha’s separate province formation

Buxi Jagabandhu is undoubtedly the leader of the Khurda Rebellion (Paika Rebellion, 1817).So, statement “Leader of Khurda Rebellion → Buxi Jagabandhu” is impossible to deny. ✅ Hence, this pair (b–1) must be true. Since (b–1) is fixed, remove all options that don’t have b–1. From the codes: (A) ❌ has b–2 → eliminate (C) ❌ has b–2 → eliminate (D) ❌ has b–3 → eliminate ✅ Only (B) has b–1 Once (B) survives, all other matches (a–2, c–3, d–4) automatically line up perfectly.

2. What does NISAR stand for?

1. NASA-ISRO Space and Aeronautics Research
2. NASA-ISRO Synthetic Aperture Radar
3. National Indian Space and Aeronautics Radar
4. NASA International Satellite for Advanced Research

Correct Answer: B (NASA-ISRO Synthetic Aperture Radar)

Explanation: NISAR is a joint satellite mission by NASA and ISRO focusing on Synthetic Aperture Radar payload for earth observation and environmental monitoring.​

3. Consider the contributions and challenges of the Services Sector in India:

1. The Services sector is the largest contributor to India’s GDP and has been the primary driver of economic growth in recent decades.
2. Despite its large share in GDP, the services sector’s share in total employment is significantly lower than that of agriculture.
3. The growth in services has often been termed “jobless growth” in the formal sector, leading to a rise in informal service sector’s employment.
4. Digitalization and the rise of the IT/ITeS sector have further solidified India’s position as a global service hub, but the benefits are not uniformly distributed across the workforce.

Which of the above statements are correct?

1. 1, 2 and 3 only
2. 1, 3 and 4 only
3. 2, 3 and 4 only
4. All of the above

Correct Answer: D (All of the above)

Explanation:

1. The Services sector is the largest contributor to India’s GDP and has been the primary driver of economic growth in recent decades. The services sector contributes the largest share of India’s Gross Domestic Product (GDP), typically over 50%, and has led the country’s economic expansion since the 1990s.
2. Despite its large share in GDP, the services sector’s share in total employment is significantly lower than that of agriculture. While agriculture’s contribution to India’s GDP has decreased, it continues to employ a larger portion of the workforce compared to the services sector. For example, data from the Economic Survey 2023–24 shows that agriculture employs over 45% of the workforce, while services account for 28.9%.
3. The growth in services has often been termed “jobless growth” in the formal sector, leading to a rise in informal service sector’s employment. High growth in output within formal services like IT and finance has not resulted in proportional job creation, a phenomenon called “jobless growth”. This has pushed more low-skilled workers into the less regulated, informal service sector, which typically offers lower wages and fewer protections.
4. Digitalization and the rise of the IT/ITeS sector have further solidified India’s position as a global service hub, but the benefits are not uniformly distributed across the workforce. India’s IT and IT-enabled services (ITeS) sector has boosted the country’s global standing as a service hub through increased exports and foreign investment.

However, the benefits are unevenly distributed due to factors like the digital divide between urban and rural areas, gender gaps in access, and socioeconomic barriers.

Tips: : When the question stem uses “contributions and challenges”, look for:Positive framing → Contribution Negative framing → Challenge Ask — does this fact align with known data? Services → ~55% of GDP (✔️ 1) Employment → ~30% (✔️ 2) Jobless growth term often linked with services (✔️ 3) Digital divide in IT sector (✔️ 4) All factual → All true

4. Consider the following statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R), and select the correct option using the codes given below:

Assertion (A): In central and southern Odisha, the Proterozoic era is represented by the Eastern Ghats Granulite Belt, which consists of khondalite, charnockite, migmatite, anorthosite and alkaline rocks.

Reason (R): These rock formations are linked to the mineralisation of bauxite, manganese, graphite, and gemstones.

1. Both A and R true, and R explains A
2. Both A and R true, but R does not explain A
3. A is true, R is false
4. A is false, R is true

Correct Answer: B) Both A and R true, but R explains A

Explanation: The Eastern Ghats Granulite Belt contains rocks formed during the Proterozoic era, linked to mineralization of bauxite, manganese, graphite, and gemstones, especially in central and southern Odisha.​

Assertion (A) is true: The Proterozoic era in central and southern Odisha is indeed represented by the Eastern Ghats Granulite Belt (EGGB). This belt is a polycyclic granulite terrain and consists of a variety of high-grade metamorphic rocks, including khondalite, charnockite, migmatite, anorthosite, and alkaline rocks.

Reason (R) is true: The rock formations of the Eastern Ghats Granulite Belt, specifically khondalites, are known to be associated with mineral deposits like bauxite, manganese, graphite, and gemstones.

5. Match List – I with List – II (Depressed Classes Movement Leaders)

List – I (Leader)

1. M. C. Raja
2. Jagjivan Ram
3. B.R. Ambedkar
4. Mahatma Gandhi

List – II (Organisation)

1. All India Depressed Classes League
2. All India Depressed Classes Congress
3. All India Depressed Classes Association
4. All India Harijan Sangh

Code

1. a-3, b-2, c-4, d-1
2. a-3, b-1, c-2, d-4
3. a-1, b-3, c-2, d-4
4. a-4, b-2, c-1, d-3

Correct Answer: B. a-3, b-1, c-2, d-4.

Explanation:

All India Depressed Classes League: Babu Jagjivan Ram established the All-India Depressed Classes League in 1935.

All India Depressed Classes Congress: Dr. B.R. Ambedkar founded the All India Depressed Classes Congress in 1930. He formed this group after resigning from the original All India Depressed Classes Association.

Depressed Classes Association: This name can refer to two different organizations:

All India Depressed Classes Association (1926): Formed in Nagpur with M.C. Rajah as its first president. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar was one of its vice-presidents.

Depressed Classes Association (1930): Founded by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar after he left the first association. This group was also known as the All India Depressed Classes Federation.

All India Harijan Sangh: Mahatma Gandhi founded this organization in 1932. It was initially called the All India Anti-Untouchability League before being renamed Harijan Sevak Sangh (“Servants of Harijan Society”).

Tips: Mahatma Gandhi → Harijan Sevak Sangh..well known to most of us→ So (d–4) is certainly correct. Now, from the options: • ✅ (B) and (C) both contain d–4, so keep B & C, eliminate (A) and (D). You’ll notice (c–2) (B.R. Ambedkar → Scheduled Castes Federation) is common in both, and that’s factually correct. So (c–2) also confirmed.Now, we’re stuck between how to pair M.C. Raja and Jagjivan Ram. Let’s reason intuitively, not factually .Jagjivan Ram was from North India (Bihar). North Indian reform/rights groups of that era often used “League” (like Muslim League, Depressed Classes League). → So (b–1) “Depressed Classes League” fits the regional naming pattern. ✅ Hence, Option B fits the cultural logic, even without factual recall.

6. The Ganjam Plates of Madhav Raja II belong to which dynasty?

• 1. Shailodbhava
  2. Bhauma-Kara
  3. Eastern Ganga
  4. Somavamshi

Correct Answer: A (Genealogy and territorial extent of Shailodbhava rulers)

Explanation: The Ganjam plates provide evidence about the rulers’ lineage and the expanse of the Shailodbhava dynasty’s rule in early medieval Odisha.​

The Ganjam Plates are a key source for the Shailodbhava dynasty. The plates mention Madhavaraja II, a king of the Shailodbhava dynasty, who ruled a region known as Kongoda-mandala in present-day Odisha.

The inscription provides historical context. The Ganjam grant of Madhavaraja II confirms the status of his grandfather, Madhavaraja I, as a feudatory ruler under Lokavigraha. The plates are also a source of information about the dynasty’s worship of Shiva.

7. Which of the following statements about the Asia Cup cricket tournament is NOT correct?

1. The Asia Cup is a cricket tournament played among the Asian group of nations.
2. The Asia Cup is organised by the Asian Cricket Council.
3. The Asia Cup was first held in the year 1984.
4. The first Asia Cup cricket tournament was played in Colombo, Sri Lanka.

Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:

• 1. 1 and 2
  2. 1 and 2 only
  3. 2 and 3
  4. 4 only

Correct Answer: D (4 only)

Explanation: The first Asia Cup was played in Sharjah, UAE (not Colombo, Sri Lanka).​

8. Match List I: Subdivisions of Himalayas with List II: Characteristics and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists

List I:

• • 1. Trans-Himalaya
    2. Greater Himalaya
    3. Lesser Himalaya
    4. Siwaliks

List II:

1. Known for hill stations like Shimla, Mussoorie
2. Composed of unconsolidated sediments forming foothills
3. Includes Karakoram, Ladakh, Zaskar range
4. Contain Mount Everest and Kanchenjunga

Codes:

• 1. a-1, b-4, c-2, d-3
  2. a-3, b-2, c-1, d-4
  3. a-3, b-2, c-4, d-1
  4. a-3, b-4, c-1, d-2

Correct Answer: D) a-3, b-4, c-1, d-2

Explanation:

Trans-Himalaya (a):  This range includes the Karakoram, Ladakh, and Zaskar ranges, so it matches with description 3.

Greater Himalaya (b):  This is the highest range with peaks like Mount Everest and Kanchenjunga, corresponding to description 4.

Lesser Himalaya (c):  Known for hill stations like Shimla and Mussoorie, aligns with description 1.

Siwaliks (d):  Composed of unconsolidated sediments forming foothills, matching description 2.

Tips: You already know: 1️⃣ Trans-Himalaya → farthest north, cold deserts (Ladakh, Karakoram, Zaskar).4️⃣ Siwaliks → foothills (youngest, made of unconsolidated sediments). The Lesser Himalaya, situated above the Siwaliks but below the snow-capped peaks, hosts popular hill stations like Shimla and Mussoorie. In contrast, the Greater Himalaya represents the loftiest ranges containing the world’s highest peaks such as Mount Everest and Kanchenjunga. Hence, the correct sequence is a–3, b–4, c–1, d–2.

9. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the Rajya Sabha?

1. It is a permanent body and cannot be dissolved.
2. One-third of its members retire every two years.
3. The Vice President of India is the ex-officio Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha.
4. It can be dissolved by the President during National Emergency.
5. 1 and 2 only
6. 1, 2 and 3 only
7. 2 and 4 only
8. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Correct Answer: B (1, 2, and 3 only)

Explanation: Rajya Sabha is a permanent house, one-third of members retire every two years, and Vice President is the ex-officio Chairperson. It cannot be dissolved at any time.​

Statement 1: It is a permanent body and cannot be dissolved. This is correct. Unlike the Lok Sabha, the Rajya Sabha is a continuous chamber and cannot be dissolved. Its stability is ensured by the staggered six-year terms of its members.

Statement 2: One-third of its members retire every two years. This is correct. To maintain its permanent character, approximately one-third of the members of the Rajya Sabha retire at the end of every second year. The vacant seats are filled by new elections and nominations.

Statement 3: The Vice President of India is the ex-officio Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha. This is correct. The Vice President of India presides over the sessions of the Rajya Sabha as its ex-officio Chairman. This is a duty assigned to them by the Constitution.

Statement 4: It can be dissolved by the President during National Emergency. This is incorrect. The Rajya Sabha is a permanent body and is not subject to dissolution, not even during a National Emergency. While the term of the Lok Sabha can be extended during an emergency, the Rajya Sabha’s permanent nature remains unaffected.

10. Who fought the Battle of Talikota?

1. Harihara I
2. Devaraya II
3. Krishna Deva Raya
4. Rama Raya

Correct Answer: D (Rama Raya)

Explanation: The Battle of Talikota (1565) was fought between Rama Raya of Vijayanagara Empire and the combined forces of Deccan sultanates, leading to the decline of Vijayanagara.​

11. The National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) functions under:

1. Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
2. Ministry of Home Affairs
3. Cabinet Secretariat
4. Prime Minister’s Office (PMO)

Correct Answer: B (Ministry of Home Affairs)

Explanation: The National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) functions under the B) Ministry of Home Affairs. The Ministry of Home Affairs serves as the nodal ministry for disaster management in India, with the NDMA acting as the apex body for laying down policies, plans, and guidelines for disaster management.

Nodal Ministry: The Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) is the central government’s nodal ministry for disaster management.

Apex Body: The NDMA is the highest body for disaster management in the country, established under the Disaster Management Act, 2005.

Function: The NDMA is responsible for laying down policies, plans, and guidelines for disaster management and coordinating efforts in response to natural or man-made disasters.

12. India’s first OECM (Other Effective area-based Conservation Measure) recognition was awarded for which reason?

1. Ex-situ conservation of orchids
2. Sacred groves with endemic fauna
3. Biodiversity management in community forests
4. Coral reef mapping

Correct Answer: B (Sacred groves with endemic fauna)

Explanation: The first OECM recognition in India was for the conservation value of sacred groves supporting endemic plant and animal species.​

13. Who commissioned the construction of the rock-cut Jain Monasteries on Udayagiri Hills?

1. Ashoka
2. Chandra Gupta Maurya
3. Kharavela
4. Bindusara

Correct Answer: C (Kharavela)

Explanation: King Kharavela, during his reign in ancient Kalinga, commissioned Jain rock-cut caves on Udayagiri Hills for monks’ residence and worship.​

14. Which of the following statements about Tropical Evergreen Forests in India are NOT correct?

1. They are confined only to the Eastern Ghats of India
2. The trees shed their leaves simultaneously during the dry summer season.
3. They are found in regions receiving rainfall above 200 cm.
4. Ebony, mahogany, and rosewood are common species.
5. 3 and 4 only
6. 1 and 2 only
7. 2 and 3 only
8. 1 and 4 only

Correct Answer: B (1 and 2 only)

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect:  Tropical Evergreen Forests are not confined only to the Eastern Ghats of India; they are also found in other regions like the Western Ghats, certain areas in the North East, and coastal Tamil Nadu.

Statement 2 is incorrect:  The key characteristic of Tropical Evergreen Forests is that they do not shed their leaves simultaneously during the dry season; they remain evergreen throughout the year.

Statement 3 is correct:  These forests are found in regions with high rainfall, typically exceeding 200 cm annually.

Statement 4 is correct:  Ebony, mahogany, and rosewood are commonly found in Tropical Evergreen Forests.

15. What is the Surya Heliophysics Foundation Model?

1. A planetary rover
2. An AI model to forecast solar activity
3. An Earth observation satellite
4. A spacecraft

Correct Answer: B (An AI model to forecast solar activity)

Explanation: It is an artificial intelligence-powered model developed for predicting solar phenomena and space weather related events.​ Surya is an artificial intelligence system developed by NASA in collaboration with IBM to analyze solar data and predict solar events like flares and coronal mass ejections, which can impact satellites, power grids, and communication systems on Earth.

16. Arrange the religious institutions established by Raja Ram Mohan Roy in chronological order:

1. Unitarian Committee
2. Vedanta College
3. Atmiya Sabha
4. Brahmo Samaj
   • • 1. d, a, b, c
       2. c, a, b, d
       3. b, d, c, a
       4. a, c, b, d

Correct Answer: B (c, a, b, d)

Explanation: Atmiya Sabha (1815) → Unitarian Committee (1821) → Vedanta College (1825) → Brahmo Samaj (1828).​

Atmiya Sabha (1815):  This was the first organization founded by Raja Ram Mohan Roy, focused on discussions about monotheism and social reform.

Unitarian Committee (1821):  Established in collaboration with British reformers to promote rational religious thought.

Vedanta College (1825):  Founded to blend Western and Indian philosophy through education.

Brahmo Samaj (1828):  A socio-religious reform movement advocating monotheism, opposing idolatry and casteism.

Tips: You know Brahmo Samaj (1828) was his major organized reform movement — that means it must have come later in his life, after smaller beginnings or ideas.→ So in the chronological list, Brahmo Samaj (d) has to be last. Now eliminate all options where d isn’t at the end — only Option B (c–a–b–d) keeps it last.

17. Consider the following statements concerning India’s Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI):

1. India’s MPI uses health, education and standard of living as dimensions, aligning with the global MPI methodology.
2. The MPI is published by NITI Aayog using data primarily from the National Family Health Survey (NFHS).
3. The Global MPI is released annually by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) and the Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative (OPHI).
4. India’s MPI includes indicators such as nutrition, school attendance and access to clean cooking fuel, among others.

Which of the above statements are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 1, 2 and 4 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. All of the above

Correct Answer: D (All of the above)

Explanation: India’s MPI uses health, education and living standards, is published by NITI Aayog using NFHS data, global MPI by UNDP & OPHI, and includes indicators like nutrition, school attendance, etc.​

18. The “One Health” approach in public policy refers to:

1. Integrating traditional and modern health systems
2. Linking human, animal and environmental health to prevent pandemics
3. Making public and private hospitals work jointly
4. Telemedicine expansion to rural areas

Correct Answer: B (Linking human, animal and environmental health to prevent pandemics)

Explanation: One Health is an integrated policy approach that recognizes the interdependence of human, animal, and ecosystem health, aiming to prevent and control zoonoses.​

19. Which of the following statements about the Odisha Integrated Irrigation Project for Climate Resilient Agriculture (OIIPCRA) is NOT correct?

1. OIIPCRA is jointly funded by the Government of Odisha and the World Bank.
2. The project aims to improve irrigation infrastructure and promote climate-resilient farming practices in selected districts.
3. It primarily focuses on large-scale dam construction to increase irrigation potential in coastal Odisha.
4. The project supports farmer training, capacity building and the introduction of climate-smart agricultural technologies.
5. 1 only
6. 2 only
7. 3 only
8. 4 only

Correct Answer: C (3 only)

Explanation: OIIPCRA promotes climate-resilient farming and infrastructure, but does not focus on large dams; it emphasizes micro-irrigation and sustainable agriculture.​

The statement that is NOT correct about the Odisha Integrated Irrigation Project for Climate Resilient Agriculture (OIIPCRA) is 3. It primarily focuses on large-scale dam construction to increase irrigation potential in coastal Odisha.

Option 1 is correct:  OIIPCRA is indeed a joint initiative between the Government of Odisha and the World Bank.

Option 2 is correct:  The project’s primary goal is to improve irrigation infrastructure and promote climate-resilient farming practices in selected districts.

Option 4 is correct:  The project supports farmer training, capacity building, and the introduction of climate-smart agricultural technologies.

20. Who is the author of the book “Baidehisha Bilasa”?

1. Hari Charan Deva
2. Sisu Sankar Das
3. Upendra Bhanja
4. Harihar Kabi

Correct Answer: C (Upendra Bhanja)

Explanation: Upendra Bhanja, a celebrated medieval Odia poet, authored “Baidehisha Bilasa,” a classic work of Odia literature.​

21. Which of the following statements about Biosphere Reserves in India are NOT correct?

1. Great Nicobar is one of the designated biosphere reserves.
2. Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve is spread over Karnataka, Kerala, and Tamil Nadu.
3. There are no biosphere reserves in the Himalayan region.
4. Sundarbans Biosphere Reserve is a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
5. 3 only
6. 1 and 3 only
7. 1, 2 and 4 only
8. 3 and 4 only

Correct Answer: A (3 only)

Explanation: There are biosphere reserves in the Himalayan region, e.g., Nanda Devi. The other statements are correct.​

Statement 1 is correct: Great Nicobar is indeed a designated Biosphere Reserve in India.

Statement 2 is correct: The Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve is situated across the states of Karnataka, Kerala, and Tamil Nadu.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Several biosphere reserves are located in the Himalayan region, including Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve.

Statement 4 is correct: Sundarbans Biosphere Reserve is recognized as a UNESCO World Heritage Site.

22. The Mission Karmayogi launched by the Government of India is aimed at:

1. Skill development for unemployed youth
2. Capacity building and competency development of civil servants
3. Leadership training for Panchayati Raj officials
4. Military training for disaster response

Correct Answer: B (Capacity building and competency development of civil servants)

Explanation: Mission Karmayogi focuses on training, upskilling, and competency development of Indian civil servants through digital platforms and continuous learning.​

23. In India, the ‘Threatened Species Recovery Programme under NBAP targets species that are:

1. Locally extinct but globally common
2. Keystone species across agro-ecological zones
3. Species with narrow geographic range and declining population
4. Genetically engineered but endangered

Correct Answer: C (Species with narrow geographic range and declining population)

Explanation: The program targets endangered species with limited distribution and shrinking populations, aiming for their recovery via habitat protection and focused conservation.​

The Threatened Species Recovery Programme (TSRP) under the National Biodiversity Action Plan (NBAP) in India is designed to focus on species that are most at risk of extinction, which are typically those with a limited geographic distribution and a rapidly declining population.

24. Which Mughal Emperor appointed the first separate Subahdar of Odisha, and in which year did Odisha became a separate Subah?

1. Akbar, 1593
2. Aurangzeb, 1658
3. Shahjahan, 1628
4. Jahangir, 1607

Correct Answer: D (Jahangir, 1607 )

Explanation: Odisha became a part of the Mughal Empire during Akbar’s reign, initially as part of the Bengal Subah after its conquest in 1593.​

However, it was under Jahangir that Odisha was made a separate Mughal province (Subah) in 1607, with its own Subahdar, making it distinct from Bengal for administrative purposes.

25. Match these summits to their host cities:

List – I (Summits):

• 1. G7 (2025)
  2. NATO (2025)
  3. SCO (2024)
  4. G20 Summit (2025)

List – II (Cities):

1. Kananaskis
2. The Hague
3. Islamabad
4. Johannesburg

Codes:

1. a-1 b-2 c-3 d-4
2. a-2 b-3 c-4 d-1
3. a-1 b-3 c-4 d-2
4. a-3 b-2 c-1 d-4

Correct Answer: A (a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4)

Explanation: Correctly matches the 2024/2025 major summits to their host cities, as per event schedules.​

a) G7 (2025): Kananaskis

b) NATO (2025): The Hague

c) SCO (2024): Islamabad

d) G20 Summit (2025): Johannesburg

26. The El Nino phenomenon is associated with:

1. Weakening of monsoon in India
2. Strengthening of monsoon in India
3. No effect on the monsoon in India
4. Only winter rains in India

Correct Answer: A (Weakening of monsoon in India)

Explanation:

El Niño is characterized by the unusual warming of sea surface temperatures in the central and eastern tropical Pacific Ocean, which can disrupt global weather patterns. This disruption often leads to a weakening of the monsoon winds that carry moisture towards the Indian subcontinent, resulting in reduced rainfall and potentially drought conditions in many parts of India.

However, it’s important to note that the relationship between El Niño and the Indian monsoon is complex, and other factors can also influence rainfall patterns. While reduced rainfall is a common outcome, some El Niño years have not resulted in drought, or have even seen increases in extreme rainfall events in certain regions.

27. Which country did India defeat in both men’s and women’s Kho Kho World Cup 2025 finals?

1. Bangladesh
2. Sri Lanka
3. Nepal
4. Pakistan

Correct Answer: C (Nepal)

Explanation: India defeated Nepal in both the men’s and women’s Kho Kho World Cup 2025 finals. The Indian men’s team won 54-36, and the women’s team won 78-40, securing the inaugural titles for both categories.

• Men’s Final: India defeated Nepal 54-36.
• Women’s Final: India defeated Nepal 78-40.

28. Match the following:

List-I (Authors):

1. A L Basham
2. Donald E Smith
3. Rudolph & Rudolph
4. WH Morris Jones

List-II (Books):

• 1. India as a secular state
  2. The wonder that was India
  3. Government and politics of India
  4. In pursuit of Lakshmi

Codes:

1. b a d c
2. a c b d
3. d b a c
4. d c b a

Correct Answer: A (b, a, c, d)

Explanation: Classic works matched to their respective authors as per academic conventions.​

• A L Basham: is known for his book “The Wonder That Was India”, which surveys the culture of the Indian subcontinent before the arrival of Muslims.
• Donald E Smith: is associated with the book “India as a secular state”.
• Rudolph & Rudolph: are recognized for their work on “Government and Politics of India”.
• WH Morris Jones: is linked to the book “In Pursuit of Lakshmi Codes”.

Tips: “The Wonder That Was India” → A.L. BashamThis is a very famous history book (culture & civilization) among OPSC/UPSC aspirants . So 1 → b gets locked immediately. That alone eliminates 3 options that don’t start with b.

29. The 15th Finance Commission recommended a health grant architecture focusing on:

1. Health cess consolidation into GST
2. States’ debt takeover by Centre
3. Universal health premium
4. Urban/rural health infrastructure and primary health care strengthening

Correct Answer: D (Urban–rural health infrastructure and primary health care strengthening)

Explanation: The 15th Finance Commission recommended grants for strengthening health infrastructure across urban and rural areas and improving primary healthcare systems.​

30. The Chola navy was known for its expedition against:

1. Cambodia and Laos
2. Vietnam
3. Indonesia and Sri Lanka
4. Maldives

Correct Answer: C (Indonesia and Sri Lanka)

Explanation: The powerful Chola navy undertook overseas expeditions targeting Sri Lanka and regions in modern-day Indonesia, expanding their influence and trade.

31. The PM Gati Shakti – National Logistics Policy targets

1. Achieving net-zero carbon emissions in urban transport
2. Integrating road, rail, port, and airport infrastructure for faster goods movement
3. Promoting bullet train corridors
4. Increasing domestic shipbuilding industry

Correct Answer: B (Integrating road, rail, port, and airport infrastructure for faster goods movement)

Explanation: PM Gati Shakti focuses on integrating various modes of transport and logistics infrastructure to facilitate swift and cost-effective movement of goods across India.​

32. What differentiates India’s Long-Term Low Emission Development Strategy (LT-LEDS) from the NAPCC?

1. It targets only renewable energy
2. It provides sector-specific deep decarbonization roadmaps
3. It replaces all earlier missions
4. It excludes forestry

Correct Answer: B (It provides sector-specific deep decarbonization roadmaps)

Explanation: LT-LEDS is a strategic decarbonization framework with focused actions for each sector, while NAPCC is a broad mission-based climate policy.​

33. Mustard Gas is:

1. Uranium hexafluoride
2. Dichlorodiphenyltrichloroethane
3. 2,2′-dichlorodiethylsulfide
4. Diethylsulphoxide

Correct Answer: C (2,2-dichlorodiethylsulfide)

Explanation: Mustard gas, a chemical warfare agent, is chemically known as 2,2-dichlorodiethylsulfide, not Uranium hexafluoride, DDT, or Diethylsulphoxide.​

34. Read the following statements and choose the correct alternative in respect of settlement geography of the world:

Statement-1: In humid tropical regions, rural settlements often take the form of compact villages.

Statement-2: Isolated farmsteads are more common in the densely populated rice-growing regions of Asia.

Statement-3: Physical barriers like mountains and deserts can lead to clustered settlements in limited habitable pockets.

Statement-4: Settlement morphology is linked to agricultural systems and land ownership patterns.

1. Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct, and Statement 4 is incorrect.
2. Statements 1, 3 and 4 are correct, and Statement 2 is incorrect.
3. Statements 2, 3 and 4 are correct, and Statement 1 is incorrect.
4. Statement 3 is correct, and Statements 1, 2 and 4 are incorrect.

Correct Answer: B (Statements 1, 3 and 4 are correct, and Statement 2 is incorrect.)

Explanation: Isolated farmsteads are not common in densely populated rice regions; compact villages prevail there. Compact settlements are shaped by climate, physical barriers, agricultural systems, and land ownership.​

Tips: one big farmhouse, vast open fields, a tractor, no neighbours in sight.That’s what “isolated farmsteads” look like — typical of low population density, not crowded rice plains.

35. The basic foundation of global economic governance in the post second World War was laid by various institutional frameworks. Which of the following combinations is correct?

• 1. IMF, World Bank, GATT
  2. IMF, World Bank, Asian Development Bank
  3. World Bank, GATT, BRICS
  4. Asian Development Bank, IMF, IBRD

1. a and b
2. a, b and c
3. a, c and d
4. a, b, c and d

Correct Answer: *****

Explanation:

The IMF (International Monetary Fund) and the World Bank (International Bank for Reconstruction and Development – IBRD) were established at the Bretton Woods Conference in 1944 to promote global economic stability and post-war reconstruction.

The GATT (General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade) was a multilateral treaty signed in 1947 that aimed to reduce barriers to international trade, and which became the primary de-facto international platform for regulating trade until it was replaced by the World Trade Organization (WTO) in 1995.

Together, these three institutions formed the core framework for global economic governance in the period following the Second World War.

36. With respect to inflation in the Indian context, consider the following statements:

1. Retail inflation, measured by the Consumer Price Index (CPI), is the primary metric used by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) for monetary policy formulation.
2. Core inflation includes volatile components like food and fuel prices, providing a more stable measure of underlying inflationary pressures.
3. Supply-side factors, such as monsoons affecting agricultural output and global crude oil prices, play a significant role in India’s inflation dynamics.
4. Headline inflation refers to the total inflation in an economy, including volatile components such as food and energy prices.

Which of the above statements are correct?

1. 1, 2 and 3 only
2. 1, 3 and 4 only
3. 2, 3 and 4 only
4. All of the above

Correct Answer: B (1, 3 and 4 only)

Explanation: Retail inflation (CPI) is RBI’s key metric. Core inflation excludes volatile food and fuel. Supply-side factors impact inflation, and headline inflation includes food and energy.​

Statement 1: Retail inflation, measured by the Consumer Price Index (CPI), is the primary metric used by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) for monetary policy formulation. The RBI officially adopted the Consumer Price Index (CPI) as its primary measure for inflation targeting in 2014, following the recommendations of the Urjit Patel Committee. The RBI Act was amended in 2016 to formally implement a Flexible Inflation Targeting (FIT) framework, using CPI inflation as the target.

Statement 2: Core inflation includes volatile components like food and fuel prices, providing a more stable measure of underlying inflationary pressures.

Incorrect. Core inflation is specifically calculated by excluding the most volatile components, such as food and fuel, from the overall inflation figure. The purpose of this exclusion is to provide a more stable and accurate reflection of the underlying, long-term inflationary trend in the economy.

Statement 3: Supply-side factors, such as monsoons affecting agricultural output and global crude oil prices, play a significant role in India’s inflation dynamics. Given India’s reliance on agriculture and dependence on imported crude oil, supply-side factors are crucial to the country’s inflation dynamics. A weak monsoon can reduce agricultural output and drive up food prices, while fluctuations in international oil prices directly affect domestic fuel and transportation costs.

Statement 4: Headline inflation refers to the total inflation in an economy, including volatile components such as food and energy prices. By definition, headline inflation is the raw inflation figure reported through price indices like the CPI, which includes all goods and services. This figure therefore contains the volatile prices of food and energy, which are excluded from core inflation.

37. A Committee was constituted to formulate fundamental duties after emergency in 1976. It was headed by which of the following personalities?

1. VC Shukla
2. DK Barooah
3. Sardar Swaran Singh
4. Sanjeeva Reddy

Correct Answer: C (Sardar Swaran Singh)

Explanation: The Sardar Swaran Singh Committee recommended the inclusion of fundamental duties after the Emergency period in 1976.​

38. Wave like character of an electron is proved by:

1. The ionization of an atom
2. The flow of electrons in a metal wire
3. The deflection of an electron beam by electrical plates
4. The diffraction pattern of electrons scattered from a crystalline solid

Correct Answer: D (The diffraction pattern of electrons scattered from a crystalline solid)

Explanation: The wave nature of electrons is confirmed by observing diffraction patterns, evidencing their dual behavior (wave-particle duality).​ Diffraction is a wave phenomenon where waves bend around obstacles, creating interference patterns. When electrons are fired at a crystal lattice, they behave like waves and diffract, creating a characteristic pattern on a detector, similar to how light diffracts through a grating.

39. Match List-I with List II and choose the correct answer from the Code given below:

List-I(Nationalist Women) : List – II (Their Activities)

1. Sarojini Naidu 1) A leader of the under ground movement
2. Usha Mehta 2) Joined Azad Hind Fauz
3. Aruna Asaf Ali 3) Led the Salt Satyagraha in Dharsana
4. Dr. Lakshmi Swaminathan 4) Operated Secret radio during Quit India movement

Code:

1. a-4, b-2, c-1, d-3
2. a-3, b-4, c-1, d-2
3. a-4, b-3, c-2, d-1
4. a-3, b-2, c-4, d-1

Correct Answer: B (a-3, b-4, c-1, d-2)

Explanation:

Sarojini Naidu: She is associated with leading the Salt Satyagraha in Dharsana.

Usha Mehta: She operated a secret radio during the Quit India Movement.

Aruna Asaf Ali: She was involved in the underground movement.

Dr. Lakshmi Swaminathan: She joined the Azad Hind Fauz.

40. 2025 Cambodia-Thailand border conflict was primarily triggered by

1. Disputes on Oil and gas resources in the Gulf of Thailand.
2. Historical disputes over Preach Vihear Temple and surrounding territory
3. Disputes on Mekong River water sharing
4. Trade war

Correct Answer: B (Historical disputes over Preah Vihear Temple and the surrounding territory.)

Explanation: The main trigger for the 2025 border conflict was the perennial dispute over the Preah Vihear Temple site between Cambodia and Thailand.​

41. The term seamless web with reference to the interconnectedness of different parts of Indian Constitution was used by which of the following authors?

1. Granville Austin
2. K.C. Wheare
3. Donald Smith
4. A.V. Dicey

Correct Answer: A (Granville Austin)

Explanation: Granville Austin described the Indian Constitution as a “seamless web” emphasizing the integrated nature of its provisions.​

42. Which of the following combinations are correct with regarding the social welfare policies and the year in which it was introduced.

• • 1. PM POSHAN – 2021
    2. Right to Education – 2009
    3. Ayushman Bharat – 2018
    4. PM Awaas Yojana – 2015

Options:

• 1. a, b, c and d
  2. c, a, d and b
  3. b, d, c and a
  4. d, c, a and b

Correct Answer: A (PM POSHAN 2021, Right to Education 2009, Ayushman Bharat 2018, PM Awaas Yojana 2015)

Explanation:

• PM POSHAN: Launched in 2021.
• Right to Education: Enacted in 2009.
• Ayushman Bharat: Introduced in 2018.
• PM Awaas Yojana: Began in 2015.

43. With reference to the challenges of urbanization in India, consider the following statements:

1. Rapid urbanization often leads to strain on existing infrastructure such as housing, sanitation, water supply, and transportation.
2. The growth of informal settlements (slums) is a common consequence of unplanned urbanization due to unaffordable formal housing.
3. Urban areas typically experience higher rates of unemployment compared to rural areas, leading to increased pressure on social services.
4. Smart Cities Mission aims to promote sustainable and inclusive cities by applying smart solutions and leveraging technology.

Which of the above statements are correct?

1. 1, 2 and 3 only
2. 1, 3 and 4 only
3. 1, 2 and 4 only
4. 2, 3 and 4 only

Correct Answer: C (1, 2, and 4 only)

Explanation: Rapid urbanization strains infrastructure, leads to informal settlements, and Smart Cities Mission aims for sustainable urban development. However, urban unemployment typically is lower than rural areas.​

44. Who was the founder of the Lingayat sect?

1. Appar
2. Basava
3. Bijjala
4. Abhinava

Correct Answer: B (Basava)

Explanation: Basava was a 12th-century philosopher and saint who founded the Lingayat sect promoting social reform.​

45. Tarkunde Report is related to which of the following?

• 1. Electoral Reforms
  2. Centre-State Relations
  3. Economic Reforms
  4. Educational Reforms

Correct Answer: A (Electoral Reforms)

Explanation:

The Tarkunde Committee, formed in 1974 by the Citizens for Democracy organization, reviewed India’s electoral system and proposed reforms to enhance transparency and fairness. Chaired by V.M. Tarkunde, the committee was established at the initiative of Jayaprakash Narayan.

46. The CAMPA funds are prioritized for activities that involve

• 1. Mining clearance proposals
  2. Community-managed wind farms
  3. Compensatory afforestation and eco-restoration
  4. River-interlinking project evaluations

Correct Answer: C (Compensatory afforestation and eco-restoration)

Explanation: CAMPA (Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority) funds are used mainly for afforestation and eco-restoration activities to mitigate forest diversion impacts.​

47. The Dyarchical system of government was introduced by which of the following measures?

1. Government of India Act, 1909
2. Government of India Resolution 1918
3. Government of India Act, 1919
4. Government of India Act, 1935

Correct Answer: C (Government of India Act, 1919)

Explanation: The 1919 Act introduced dyarchy in provinces, dividing subjects between elected Indian ministers and British officials.​

48. Which of the following is a non-reducing sugar?

• 1. Glucose
  2. Maltose
  3. Sucrose
  4. Fructose

Correct Answer: C (Sucrose)

Explanation: Sucrose is a non-reducing sugar because it lacks a free aldehyde or ketone group, unlike glucose, fructose, and maltose.​

49. Which of the following statements about World Cultural Realms are NOT correct?

1. Occidental Realm Includes Western Europe, North America, Australia, and New Zealand shares Greco-Roman heritage, Christianity and industrial development.
2. Indic Realm Centered in India shaped by Hinduism, Buddhism and related cultural traditions.
3. Islamic Realm Restricted solely to the Arabian Peninsula, excluding North Africa and Southeast Asia.
4. Sino-Japanese Realm Comprises China, Japan, Korea, and Vietnam influenced by Confucianism, Buddhism, and Taoism.
5. Sub-Saharan African Realm Unified by Bantu linguistic roots and indigenous beliefs, with significant Islamic and Christian presence.

Options:

• 1. 1 and 3 only
  2. 2 and 4 only
  3. 3 only
  4. 1, 3 and 5

Correct Answer: C (3 only – Islamic Realm restricted solely to Arabian Peninsula)

Explanation:

Statement 3 is incorrect because the Islamic Cultural Realm is not restricted to the Arabian Peninsula. This realm is a vast geographical area that extends from Morocco in North Africa to Pakistan in the east and includes parts of Southeast Asia, such as Indonesia and Malaysia, where Islam is a dominant religion.

Statement 1 (Occidental Realm): This statement is correct. The Occidental Realm includes Western Europe, North America, Australia, and New Zealand, and is characterized by a shared Greco-Roman heritage, Christianity, and high levels of industrial development and urbanization.

Statement 2 (Indic Realm): This statement is correct. The Indic Realm is centered on the Indian subcontinent and is influenced by Hinduism, Buddhism, and related traditions.

Statement 4 (Sino-Japanese Realm): This statement is correct. The Sino-Japanese Realm (also referred to as the East Asian Realm) comprises countries like China, Japan, and Korea and is influenced by philosophies like Confucianism, Buddhism, and Taoism.

Statement 5 (Sub-Saharan African Realm): This statement is correct. The Sub-Saharan African Realm is characterized by a diverse mix of indigenous beliefs and is a region with a significant presence of Christianity and Islam.

50. Which of the following statements about the CM-KISAN scheme of Odisha are NOT correct?

1. Livelihood support under the scheme is provided exclusively to large landholding farmers.
2. Input support is given to farmers for cultivation.
3. Krishi Vidya Nidhi Yojana under CM-KISAN aims to promote agricultural education among farmers’ children.
4. The scheme is designed to be progressive and inclusive in nature.

Options:

• 1. 1 only
  2. 1 and 2 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1 and 4 only

Correct Answer: A (1 only)

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect because the CM-KISAN scheme of Odisha explicitly excludes large and medium farmers. The scheme’s financial assistance is provided to “small and marginal farmers” (those with less than 2 hectares of land) and “landless agricultural households”. The statement’s use of “exclusively to large landholding farmers” is the opposite of the scheme’s purpose.

Why other options are incorrect

Statement 2: This statement is correct. The scheme provides financial assistance to farmers for cultivation. This support is meant to help them purchase agricultural inputs like fertilizers, seeds, and pesticides.

Statement 3: This statement is correct. The “Krushi Vidya Nidhi Yojana” is a component of CM-KISAN that provides scholarships and financial assistance to the children of beneficiaries to pursue professional or technical courses.

Statement 4: This statement is correct. The scheme is described as being “progressive and inclusive” in its approach, as it aims to provide support to small, marginal, and landless agricultural households.

51. Arrange the following committees in a chronological order

• 1. N.N. Vohra Committee
  2. Rajinder Sachar Committee
  3. D.S. Kothari Committee
  4. Raja J. Chelliah Committee

Choose the correct answer

• 1. a, b, c and d
  2. c, d, a and b
  3. b, a, c and d
  4. a, c, b and d

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

1. D.S. Kothari Committee (1964-1966): Established in 1964, this commission was set up to formulate a coherent education policy for India.
2. Raja J. Chelliah Committee (1991): This Tax Reforms Committee was established in 1991 to suggest measures for reforming India’s tax system.
3. N.N. Vohra Committee (1993): This committee was constituted in 1993 to study the criminalization of politics in India and the nexus among criminals, politicians, and bureaucrats.
4. Rajinder Sachar Committee (2005): Formed in 2005, this committee was tasked with examining the social, economic, and educational status of the Muslim community in India.

52. Which of the followings is not a dye?

• 1. Alizarin
  2. Fluorescein
  3. Phenolphthalein
  4. Anthranilic acid

Correct Answer:  D (Anthranilic acid)

Explanation:

Anthranilic acid is not a dye; it is an intermediate used in the synthesis of other dyes. The other options listed are all types of dyes.

53. Consider the following statements regarding the Odisha Industrial Infrastructure Development Corporation (IDCO)

1. IDCO was established as a statutory corporation by the Government of Odisha in 1981.
2. It serves as the nodal agency for providing industrial infrastructure and land for industrial and infrastructure projects across the state.
3. The corporation’s objectives include the development of industrial estates, IT parks and other industrial complexes.
4. IDCO’s functions do not include land acquisition or the creation of a land bank for major and mega projects.
5. The corporation facilitates private-sector participation and provides project construction services.

Which of the statements given above is NOT correct?

• 1. 2 only
  2. 4 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 3 and 5 only

Correct Answer: B (4 only)

Explanation: IDCO does involve land acquisition and land bank creation for major projects, so statement 4 is incorrect. It was established in 1981 and facilitates industrial infrastructure.​

Statement 1: IDCO was established in 1981 under the Orissa Industrial Infrastructure Development Corporation Act, 1980. This statement is correct.

Statement 2: IDCO serves as the nodal agency for providing industrial infrastructure and land for projects across the state. This statement is correct.

Statement 3: The corporation’s objectives include the establishment of industrial estates, industrial areas, and IT parks. This statement is correct.

Statement 5: IDCO facilitates private-sector participation and provides project construction services. This statement is correct.

54. Consider the following statements with regard to the Comptroller Auditor General.

• 1. The office of CAG has been modelled on the basis of Advocate General under the Government of India Act, 1919.
  2. CAG is the impartial head of the audit and account system of India.
  3. CAG can be removed by the President on the grounds of proven misbehaviour.
  4. The term of office of CAG shall be six years from the date on which he assumes office.

Choose the correct answer

• 1. a and b
  2. a and c
  3. b and d
  4. a, b, c and d

Correct Answer: C) b and d.

Explanation:

(a) False: The office of the CAG was established based on the Auditor-General under the Government of India Act, 1935, not the 1919 Act.

(b) True: The CAG is the impartial head of the audit and accounts system of India, described as the “guardian of the public purse”.

(c) False: The CAG can be removed by the President on an address from both Houses of Parliament on grounds of proven misbehaviour or incapacity, not simply on proven misbehaviour by the President alone.

(d) True: The term of office for the CAG is six years or until the age of 65, whichever comes first.

55. Under which Mughal Emperor was the office of Muhtasib (Censor of Public Morals) instituted in Odisha?

• 1. Shahjahan
  2. Aurangzeb
  3. Jahangir
  4. Humayun

Correct Answer:  B (Aurangzeb)

Explanation: Mughal Emperor Aurangzeb instituted the office of the Muhtasib (Censor of Public Morals) to enforce moral codes throughout his empire, including in Odisha. He banned activities like drinking and the use of drugs, prohibited music in the court, and ended practices such as Jarokhadarshan (public viewing from a balcony).

56. Who was the first Leader to Move a resolution in the Central Legislative Assembly demanding the Unification of all Odia speaking tracts into a separate province?

• 1. Madhusudan Das
  2. Gopabandhu Das
  3. Hare Krushna Mahatab
  4. Nil Kantha Das

Correct Answer: D (Nil Kantha Das)

Explanation: The first leader to move a resolution in the Central Legislative Assembly demanding the unification of all Odia-speaking tracts was Pandit Nilakantha Das in 1924. He presented a resolution advocating for a separate province of Orissa and worked to build public opinion in its favor through articles in newspapers and journals.

57. Consider the following statements

1. The Inter-State Council (ISC) was set up under Article 263 of the Constitution.
2. Punchhi Commission recommended the establishment of the Inter-State Council.
3. The Union Home Minister is the Chairman of the Inter-State Council.
4. It discusses matters of common interests and suggests policies for better coordination.

Choose the correct codes

• 1. 1 and 4
  2. 1, 3 and 4
  3. 2, 3 and 1
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: B (1 and 4)

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct:  The Inter-State Council (ISC) is established under Article 263 of the Indian Constitution.

Statement 4 is correct:  The ISC’s primary function is to discuss matters of common interest between states and the Centre and suggest policies for better coordination.

Why other options are incorrect:

Statement 2 is incorrect:  The Sarkaria Commission, not the Punchhi Commission, recommended the establishment of the ISC.

Statement 3 is incorrect:  The Prime Minister, not the Union Home Minister, is the Chairman of the ISC.

58. Which climate initiative specifically supports Himalayan glacial monitoring?

• 1. ICAP
  2. National Mission on Sustaining the Himalayan Ecosystem
  3. State REDD Programme
  4. Bharat Clean Energy Mission

Correct Answer: B (National Mission on Sustaining the Himalayan Ecosystem)

Explanation: This mission under the National Action Plan on Climate Change specifically targets Himalayan ecosystem and glacier conservation.​

National Mission on Sustaining the Himalayan Ecosystem (NMSHE): This mission is part of India’s National Action Plan on Climate Change and has a specific objective to study Himalayan glaciers, monitor their changes, and understand the impacts of climate change on them.

59. Which of the following statements about the global industrial pattern is NOT correct?

1. Japan, Germany and the USA are leaders in automobile production
2. India and Bangladesh are major centres for textile and garment industries
3. South Korea and Taiwan are known for shipbuilding and heavy machinery
4. Canada and Australia are primarily known for heavy industry rather than resource-based industries
5. 2 and 3 only
6. 1 and 2 only
7. 3 and 1 only
8. 4 only

Correct Answer: D (4 only)

Explanation: Canada and Australia’s economies are predominantly resource-based rather than heavy manufacturing-focused.​ While Canada and Australia do have significant industrial sectors, they are more prominently recognized for their vast natural resource exports, including minerals, oil, and agricultural products. Therefore, option 4 is the incorrect statement.

60. Which of the following was the first major administrative measure taken by the Congress Ministry formed in Odisha under Hare Krushna Mahatab on 23 April 1946?

• 1. Abolition Settlements of Zamindari
  2. Release of political prisoners
  3. Repeal of salt laws in Coastal Odisha
  4. Introduction of Compulsory primary education

Correct Answer: B (Release of political prisoners)

Explanation: The first major administrative measure taken by the Congress Ministry formed in Odisha under Hare Krushna Mahatab on April 23, 1946, was the release of political prisoners.

This immediate action was a priority for the newly formed government, reflecting the Congress Party’s commitment to the freedom struggle and their fellow activists who had been imprisoned by the British.

A) Abolition Settlements of Zamindari: The abolition of the zamindari system was a significant agrarian reform, but it was enacted later, not as the very first step.

C) Repeal of salt laws in Coastal Odisha: The salt laws were broken as an act of civil disobedience during the Salt Satyagraha in the 1930s. This was a key part of the independence movement, not an administrative measure taken by a ministry that came to power in 1946.

D) Introduction of Compulsory primary education: While the Mahatab ministry did focus on social reforms, including education, the immediate release of political prisoners was the first major step.

61. Which of the following best defines the concept of Pareto Optimality?

• 1. A situation where everyone is equally well-off
  2. A situation where no one can be made better off without making someone else worse off
  3. A situation where total wealth is maximized
  4. A situation where the government redistributes resources equally

Answer: B (A situation where no one can be made better off without making someone else worse off)

Explanation: Pareto Optimality means resource allocation where improving one individual’s situation harms another. It’s efficiency without equity guarantee.​

Pareto optimality is a state where resources are allocated such that it’s impossible to make one person better off without making someone else worse off. This concept, also called Pareto efficiency, is a cornerstone of welfare economics and is a benchmark for resource allocation efficiency, but it does not imply fairness or equality, as one person can be much better off while others are only marginally worse off. A situation can be Pareto optimal even if one person has almost all the resources, as long as any redistribution would make another person worse off.

62. Consider the following statements:

• 1. Under Article 124 of the Indian Constitution, a Supreme Court Judge can be impeached.
  2. The grounds for impeachment of a Judge pertain to incapacity and proven misbehavior.
  3. A minimum of 100 MPs are required to initiate the impeachment motion in the Lok Sabha.
  4. The President can pardon the Judge.

Which of the following statements are INCORRECT?

• 1. a and b
  2. c only
  3. c and d
  4. a, c and d

Answer: ****

Explanation: Art 124(4) allows impeachment. Grounds include incapacity and misbehavior. Minimum 100 MPs are not required. President cannot pardon a judge.​

a) Under Article 124 of the Indian Constitution, a Supreme Court Judge can be impeached.

• Correct. A Supreme Court Judge is removed through a process initiated by a motion in Parliament, as specified in Article 124(4) and the Judges (Inquiry) Act of 1968. While the word “impeachment” is used colloquially, the Constitution only uses this term for the removal of the President of India under Article 61.

b) The grounds for impeachment of a Judge pertain to incapacity and proven misbehavior.

• Correct. As per Article 124(4), the grounds for removing a Supreme Court Judge are “proved misbehavior or incapacity”.

c) A minimum of 100 MPs are required to initiate the impeachment motion in the Lok Sabha.

• Correct. For the Lok Sabha, the motion for removal must be signed by at least 100 Members of Parliament. Alternatively, 50 members can initiate the motion in the Rajya Sabha.

d) The President can pardon the Judge.

• Incorrect. The President’s power to pardon under Article 72 applies to those convicted of an offense and sentenced to punishment, not to a judge removed from office by a parliamentary process. The removal of a judge is a constitutional procedure, not a criminal conviction that can be pardoned. After a judge is removed, they are disqualified from pleading or acting in any court in India, which a pardon cannot reverse.

63. Consider the following statements regarding Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) and their indicators:

1. The 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development, adopted by all United Nations Member States in 2015, comprises 17 SDGs and 169 targets.
2. SDG 1 targets ending poverty in all its forms everywhere, using indicators like the proportion of people living below the national poverty line.
3. The ‘leave no one behind’ principle is central to the SDGs, emphasizing disaggregated data collection to identify vulnerable groups.
4. Sustainable Consumption and Production (SCP) is primarily addressed under SDG 14, focusing on efficient resource use and reducing waste.

Which of the above statements are correct?

• 1. 1, 2 and 3 only
  2. 1, 3 and 4 only
  3. 2, 3 and 4 only
  4. All of the above

Answer: A) 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation:

Statement 3 is incorrect:

SCP is addressed under SDG 12: The goal for ensuring sustainable consumption and production patterns is Sustainable Development Goal 12 (“Responsible Consumption and Production”).

Focus of SDG 14: Sustainable Development Goal 14 is titled “Life Below Water” and focuses on conserving and sustainably using the oceans, seas, and marine resources.

• The 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development, adopted by all United Nations Member States in 2015, comprises 17 SDGs and 169 targets.
• SDG 1 targets ending poverty in all its forms everywhere, using indicators like the proportion of people living below the national poverty line.
• The ‘leave no one behind’ principle is central to the SDGs, emphasizing disaggregated data collection to identify vulnerable groups.

64. Section 4 of the RTI Act states that the obligations of public authorities to maintain records and publish information are to be done within how many days from the enactment of the Act?

• 1. 120
  2. 30
  3. 110
  4. 10

Answer: A (120 days)

Explanation:

Section 4 of the RTI Act requires public authorities to publish certain information within 120 days of the Act’s enactment. This includes particulars of their organization, functions, duties, and the powers and duties of their officers and employees.

65. Consider the following statements about the Ramsar sites in India:

1. A Ramsar site is declared based on its ecological importance and biodiversity richness.
2. Chilika Lake was the first Indian site to be added to the Ramsar list.
3. As of 2023, India has more than 75 Ramsar sites.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

• 1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: D (1, 2, and 3)

Explanation:

Option D is correct, as all three statements are true. A Ramsar site is designated for its ecological importance and rich biodiversity, Chilika Lake was the first Indian site added to the list, and India had over 75 Ramsar sites as of 2023.

• Statement 1 is correct. A Ramsar site is chosen for its ecological importance and biodiversity.
• Statement 2 is correct. In 1981, Chilika Lake was designated the first Indian wetland of international importance under the Ramsar Convention.
• Statement 3 is correct. As of 2023, India had over 75 Ramsar sites, with the number increasing to 80 by late 2025.

66. The writ of Mandamus is issued

• 1. To release a person from illegal detention
  2. To transfer a case from a lower court to a higher court
  3. To compel a public official to perform a public duty
  4. To question the legality of a person holding a public office

Answer: C (To compel a public official to perform a public duty)

Explanation: Mandamus is an order to public authority to perform legally obligated duty.​

67. Consider the following statements about Samudrayaan Mission

1. The development of the Samudrayaan Mission will enhance India’s capability in Nuclear Submarine Development
2. Samudrayaan Mission aims to develop a self-propelled manned Submersible.
3. Samudrayaan Mission aims to explore deep oceans up to 6000 meters.
4. Samudrayaan Mission aims to boost marine tourism.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below

• 1. 1 only
  2. 2 and 3
  3. 1 and 4 only
  4. 4 only

Answer: B (2 and 3)

Explanation:

• Samudrayaan Mission is part of the Deep Ocean Mission. It aims to develop a self-propelled manned submersible named ‘MATSYA 6000’. This submersible is designed to carry three people for scientific exploration. This makes Statement 2 correct.
• The primary goal is to send this submersible to a depth of 6,000 meters. The mission’s purpose is to explore deep-sea resources and biodiversity. This makes Statement 3 correct.

Why other options are incorrect

• 1. The development of the Samudrayaan Mission will enhance India’s capability in Nuclear Submarine Development: The mission is for scientific and technological exploration of deep oceans, not for military purposes like nuclear submarines.
• 4. Samudrayaan Mission aims to boost marine tourism: While some sources mention that the mission may lay the foundation for future deep-sea tourism, it is not its primary aim. The core objectives are scientific research, resource exploration, and technological advancement.

68. Which of the following statements regarding India’s aquaculture policies is/are correct?

1. The Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana (PMMSY) aims to enhance fish production and boost exports.
2. The Coastal Aquaculture Authority regulates aquaculture activities in brackish water and coastal areas.
3. The National Fisheries Development Board (NFDB) is responsible for promoting modern aquaculture practices.
4. The FAO’s Code of Conduct for Responsible Fisheries is legally binding in India.
   1. 1, 2, and 3 only
   2. 1 and 4 only
   3. 2 and 4 only
   4. 1, 3, and 4 only

Answer: A (1, 2, and 3 only)

Explanation:

1. The Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana (PMMSY) aims to enhance fish production and boost exports. This statement is correct. The PMMSY was launched to increase fish production, double the income of fish farmers, and enhance the contribution of the fisheries sector to agricultural Gross Value Added (GVA) and exports.

2. The Coastal Aquaculture Authority regulates aquaculture activities in brackish water and coastal areas. This is also correct. The Coastal Aquaculture Authority Act, 2005, established the Coastal Aquaculture Authority (CAA) to regulate coastal aquaculture activities in a sustainable and environmentally friendly manner.

3. The National Fisheries Development Board (NFDB) is responsible for promoting modern aquaculture practices. This statement is accurate. The NFDB was established to give focused attention to the holistic development of the fisheries sector by promoting modern and innovative practices, including intensive aquaculture and technology-driven tools in research and development.

69. What is the time limit provided for making a complaint under the Prevention of Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace Act, 2013 (POSH)?

• 1. 14 days
  2. One month
  3. Two months
  4. Three months

Answer: D (Three months)

Explanation: According to the Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal) Act, 2013 (POSH), an aggrieved woman must file a complaint of sexual harassment within three months from the date of the incident (or the last incident if there were multiple).

70. Consider the following statements about endemic species in India

1. Endemic species are restricted to a specific geographical location.
2. The Nilgiri Tahr is endemic to the Western Ghats.
3. Endemic species always fall under the IUCN Critically Endangered category.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

• 1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: A (1 and 2 only)

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct. An endemic species is defined as a plant or animal species that is found exclusively in a particular geographical area and nowhere else in the world.

Statement 2 is correct. The Nilgiri Tahr is a mountain ungulate that is endemic to the southern portion of the Western Ghats in India, spanning the states of Tamil Nadu and Kerala.

Why other options are incorrect

Statement 3 is incorrect. While endemic species are often more vulnerable to extinction due to their limited range, they do not always fall under the IUCN Critically Endangered category. The Nilgiri Tahr, for example, is listed as Endangered, which is a different conservation status. Other endemic species can have various conservation statuses, including Vulnerable or even non-threatened.

71. The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) is mentioned in which part of the Indian Constitution?

1. Part VII
2. Part XIII
3. Part XIV
4. Part IX

Answer: C (Part XIV)

Explanation: UPSC is established under Part XIV (Services under the Union and the States) of the Constitution.​

72. Consider the following statements about delimitation and its implications in India:

• • 1. Delimitation is the process of redrawing boundaries of Lok Sabha and state assembly constituencies to represent changes in population.
    2. The Delimitation Commission is appointed by the President of India and its orders have the force of law and cannot be challenged in any court.
    3. The primary objective of delimitation is to ensure that all constituencies have roughly equal populations, thereby upholding the principle of “one person, one vote.”
    4. The current delimitation exercise is based on the 2001 Census, with the next one mandated after the first census following 2026.

Which of the above statements are correct?

• 1. 1, 2 and 3 only
  2. 1, 3 and 4 only
  3. 2, 3 and 4 only
  4. All of the above

Answer:  D) All of the above

Explanation: All four statements regarding delimitation in India are correct

Delimitation is the process of redrawing boundaries of Lok Sabha and state assembly constituencies to represent changes in population. This is an accurate definition of the process. Delimitation is carried out to reflect changes in population density, ensuring a more equal distribution of representation.

The Delimitation Commission is appointed by the President of India and its orders have the force of law and cannot be challenged in any court. The President appoints the independent Delimitation Commission. Its orders, once published in the Gazette of India, have the force of law and are final. They cannot be questioned in any court.

The primary objective of delimitation is to ensure that all constituencies have roughly equal populations, thereby upholding the principle of “one person, one vote.” This is the core principle behind delimitation. The goal is to correct imbalances and ensure that all voters have approximately the same representation.

The current delimitation exercise is based on the 2001 Census, with the next one mandated after the first census following 2026. Due to a constitutional amendment, the last delimitation exercise was based on the 2001 census data, and the number of seats for each state was frozen. The next exercise, which will reallocate seats among states, is scheduled to occur after the first census following 2026.

73. Which British Governor – General of India formally annexed Odisha into the British empire?

1. Warren Hastings
2. Lord Cornwallis
3. Lord Wellesley
4. Lord Dalhousie

Answer: C (Lord Wellesley)

Explanation: Lord Wellesley annexed Odisha in 1803 after defeating the Marathas.​

74. Which one among the following does not match properly the Noble Prize category with its 2024 laureate?

• 1. Peace – Narges Mohammadi
  2. Literature – Han Kang
  3. Economics Daron Acemoglu, Simon Johnson & James Robinson
  4. Physics John Hopfield & Geoffrey Hinton

Answer: A) Peace – Narges Mohammadi

Explanation:

Peace: The 2024 Nobel Peace Prize was awarded to the Japanese anti-nuclear organization Nihon Hidankyo. Narges Mohammadi won the prize in 2023 for her fight against the oppression of women in Iran.

Literature: The 2024 Nobel Prize in Literature was awarded to South Korean author Han Kang.

Economics: The 2024 Sveriges Riksbank Prize in Economic Sciences was awarded to Daron Acemoglu, Simon Johnson, and James Robinson for their research on institutions and prosperity.

Physics: The 2024 Nobel Prize in Physics was awarded to John Hopfield and Geoffrey Hinton for their foundational discoveries that enable machine learning with artificial neural networks.

75. In the 97th edition of the Academy Awards, who was the first black person to win the Oscar for Best Costume Design?

1. Paul Tazewell
2. Olivier Perrin
3. Emilia Perez
4. Chiney Baker

Answer: A (Paul Tazewell)

Explanation: Paul Tazewell made history as first Black Oscar winner for costume design.​ At the 97th Academy Awards, the first Black person to win the Oscar for Best Costume Design was Paul Tazewell. He won for his work on the film Wicked.

76. Arrange in chronological order:

• 1. Brihadaranyaka Upanishad
  2. Manusmriti
  3. Arthashastra
  4. Milindapanha

1. a-b-c-d
2. b-c-a-d
3. c-a-b-d
4. a-c-b-d

Answer: D (The correct chronological order is: Brihadaranyaka Upanishad, Arthashastra, Manusmriti, and Milindapanha)

Explanation:

• Brihadaranyaka Upanishad: Composed in the early 1st millennium BCE, likely between the 7th and 6th centuries BCE. It is one of the oldest Upanishads.
• Arthashastra: Generally dated to the 4th century BCE, authored by Kautilya, a chief advisor to the Maurya emperor Chandragupta Maurya. Some scholars suggest later additions up to the 3rd century CE.
• Manusmriti: Composed sometime between the 2nd century BCE and 3rd century CE.
• Milindapanha: A Buddhist text dating from approximately 100 BCE to 200 CE, recording a dialogue between the Indo-Greek King Menander I and the Buddhist sage Nagasena.

77. Consider the following statements about India’s Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs):

1. India has committed to reduce the emissions intensity of its GDP by 45% by 2030 from 2005 levels.
2. India aims to achieve about 50% cumulative electric power installed capacity from non-fossil fuel sources by 2030.
3. India’s updated NDC is linked to the Panchamrit announcement made at COP26.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: D (1, 2 and 3)

Explanation:

• Statement 1: India has officially committed to reducing the emissions intensity of its GDP by 45% by 2030 from 2005 levels. This was part of its updated NDC submitted to the UNFCCC in August 2022.
• Statement 2: India’s updated NDC also includes the target to achieve about 50% of its cumulative electric power installed capacity from non-fossil fuel sources by 2030.
• Statement 3: The updated NDC is directly linked to the Panchamrit pledges announced by Prime Minister Narendra Modi at the COP26 summit in Glasgow in 2021. The updated NDC translates these five pledges into formal climate targets for India.

78. Who has been appointed as India’s new Deputy National Security Adviser as of August 2025?

1. Rajinder Khanna
2. T. V. Ravichandran
3. Anish Dayal Singh
4. Pankaj Kumar Singh

Answer: C) Anish Dayal Singh

Explanation: Anish Dayal Singh has been appointed as India’s new Deputy National Security Adviser as of August 2025.

• A 1988-batch Indian Police Service (IPS) officer from the Manipur cadre, he previously served as the Director General of the Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF).
• He is set to handle internal security matters, including issues related to Jammu and Kashmir, Naxalism, and the insurgency in the Northeast.
• His appointment adds to the team of Deputy NSAs working under National Security Adviser Ajit Doval.

79. Match the following :

Days: United Nations Events

• 1. 3 March
  2. 7 April
  3. 3 May
  4. 20 June

1. World Wildlife Day
2. World Health Day
3. World Press Freedom Day
4. World Refugee Day

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

1. a-1 b-2 c-3 d-4
2. a-2 b-3 c-4 d-1
3. a-1 b-3 c-4 d-2
4. a-3 b-2 c-1 d-4

Answer: A (3 March – World Wildlife Day, 7 April – World Health Day, 3 May – World Press Freedom Day, 20 June – World Refugee Day)

Explanation:

• 3 March (a) is recognized as World Wildlife Day (1) to celebrate wild fauna and flora.
• 7 April (b) is celebrated as World Health Day (2), which marks the anniversary of the founding of the World Health Organization (WHO) in 1948.
• 3 May (c) is World Press Freedom Day (3), proclaimed by the UN General Assembly in 1993.
• 20 June (d) is designated as World Refugee Day (4) to honor refugees around the globe.

80. What was the official theme of the 38th National Games?

1. Fit India
2. Sustainable Olympics
3. Green Games
4. Eco-Sports Initiative

Answer: C (Green Games)

Explanation: The official theme of the 38th National Games was Green Games. This theme emphasized sustainability and environmental conservation. The games incorporated various eco-friendly initiatives, including the use of recyclable materials, rainwater harvesting, solar panels, and eco-friendly transportation, to reduce their environmental impact.

The mascot for the games, Mauli, was inspired by the Himalayan Monal, the state bird of Uttarakhand, further highlighting the region’s rich biodiversity and the importance of environmental protection.

81. Match List-I with List-II and select from code:

List-I (Colonial Policies/Events ) List-II (Impact on Odisha)

• 1. Permanent Settlement 1793 -1. Aggravated economic distress of Odisha peasants
  2. British Reorganization after Maratha defeat -2. Led to inclusion of Odia-speaking tracts under different presidencies
  3. Imposition of Bengali Slavery – 3. Caused resentment and fueled Odia linguistic identity movement
  4. Abolition (Ellenborough in Odisha) – 4. Enacted by Lord Ellenborough in Odisha
  5. Simon Commission -5. Petitioned by Krushna Chandra Gajapati for separate province

Code:

1. a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4, e-5
2. a-2, b-1, c-3, d-4, e-5
3. a-4, b-5, c-1, d-3, e-2
4. a-5, b-3, c-4, d-2, e-1

Correct Answer: A (a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4, e-5)

Explanation:

• Permanent Settlement 1793 (a) had a disastrous impact on the peasants of Odisha by imposing high, fixed revenue demands that the local zamindars often failed to pay. This led to the sale of many estates, with many Odia zamindars being replaced by Bengali speculators, which aggravated the economic distress of the Odia peasants.
• British Reorganization after Maratha defeat (b) in 1803 led to the division of Odisha into three administrative units. Odia-speaking tracts were placed under different presidencies: the coastal areas under the Bengal Presidency, Ganjam and Koraput under the Madras Presidency, and Sambalpur under the Central Provinces.
• Imposition of Bengali (c) as the official language in Odia-speaking areas, especially in the 1860s, caused significant resentment. This policy fueled the Odia linguistic identity movement, which advocated for the recognition of Odia as an independent language and the unification of all Odia-speaking areas.
• Abolition (Ellenborough in Odisha) (d) refers to the Indian Slavery Act of 1843, which was enacted by Governor-General Lord Ellenborough. This act declared slavery illegal across the territories under the East India Company, including Odisha.
• Simon Commission (e) was petitioned by Maharaja Krushna Chandra Gajapati. In his capacity as a representative of the Odia-speaking people, he strongly argued before the commission for the creation of a separate province for Odisha.

82. Match List-I (Indian Rivers) with List-II (Their Tributaries) and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

List-I (Indian Rivers) List-II (Their Tributaries)

a) Chambal – 1. Bhima

b) Cauvery – 2. Noyyal

c) Krishna – 3. Banas

d) Godavari -4. Manjra

Code:

1. a-2, b-1, c-3, d-4
2. a-3, b-2, c-1, d-4
3. a-4, b-3, c-2, d-1
4. a-3, b-4, c-2, d-1

Correct Answer: B) a-3, b-2, c-1, d-4

Explanation:

Chambal is a tributary of the Yamuna River, and its own tributary is the Banas.

Cauvery (or Kaveri) is joined by the Noyyal River in western Tamil Nadu.

Krishna is a major river of peninsular India, and its largest tributary is the Bhima.

Godavari is joined by the Manjra River, which flows through Maharashtra, Karnataka, and Telangana.

83. Match List-I (Rivers of Odisha) with List-II (Their Tributaries) and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

List-I (Rivers of Odisha) List-II (Their Tributaries)

1. Mahanadi – 1. Sankha
2. Brahmani -2. Raru
3. Baitarani –3. Ong
4. Subarnarekha 4. Deo

Code:

1. a-2, b-1, c-3, d-4
2. a-3, b-2, c-1, d-4
3. a-3, b-1, c-4, d-2
4. a-3, b-4, c-2, d-1

Correct Answer: C (a-3, b-1, c-4, d-2)

Explanation:

Mahanadi (a) is matched with Ong (3). Ong is a right-bank tributary of the Mahanadi, joining it in Odisha.

Brahmani (b) is matched with Sankha (1). The Brahmani is formed by the confluence of the Sankha and South Koel rivers near Rourkela.

Baitarani (c) is matched with Deo (4). Deo is a major tributary of the Baitarani river.

Subarnarekha (d) is matched with Raru (2). Raru is a tributary of the Subarnarekha.

84. Who were the first to issue gold coins in India?

1. Kushans
2. Sakas
3. Parthians
4. Indo Greeks

Correct Answer: A ( Kushans)

Explanation:

The Kushan ruler Vima Kadphises was the first to issue gold coins in India, introducing them around 100 CE. These Kushan gold coins, called “Dinara,” were minted on a large scale and facilitated trade, reflecting the prosperity of the empire.

85. The Department of Social Justice and Empowerment (DoSJE) recently signed an MoU with which organisation to enhance public awareness about social justice schemes?

1. Ministry of Defence
2. National Human Commission Rights (NHRC)
3. National Legal Services Authority (NALSA)
4. Central Vigilance Commission

Correct Answer: C (National Legal Services Authority – NALSA)

Explanation: The MoU aims to enhance public awareness of social justice schemes through legal aid and awareness promotion.​

86. Match the initiatives with its year of launch:

Scheme : Year

• 1. Ayushman Bharat – 1.2006
  2. National Skill Development Mission -2. 2018
  3. MGNREGA -3. 2015
  4. Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana – 4. 2014

Options:

1. a-2, b-3, c-1, d-4
2. a-4, b-1, c-2, d-3
3. a-3, b-2, c-4, d-1
4. a-1, b-4, c-3, d-2

Correct Answer: A) a-2, b-3, c-1, d-4.

Explanation:

a) Ayushman Bharat: 2018

b) National Skill Development Mission: 2015

c) MGNREGA: 2006 (The National Rural Employment Guarantee Act was passed in 2005, but the scheme was launched in 2006)

d) Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana: 2014

87. Match Rajput rulers with notable battles/events:

• 1. Rana Sanga – 1. Battle of Haldighati
  2. Maharana Pratap – 2. Battle of Khanwa
  3. Rao Chandra Sen – 3. Struggle against Akbar
  4. Raja Man Singh – 4. Conquest of Odisha

1. a-2, b-1, c-3, d-4
2. a-1, b-3, c-2, d-4
3. a-3, b-2, c-4, d-1
4. a-4, b-2, c-1, d-3

Correct Answer:  A) a-2, b-1, c-3, d-4.

Explanation:

• Rana Sanga: is associated with the Battle of Khanwa against Babur.
• Maharana Pratap: is primarily known for the Battle of Haldighati where he fought against Akbar.
• Rao Chandra Sen: While historical details are limited, he is generally recognized for his struggles against Akbar.
• Raja Man Singh: is linked to the conquest of Odisha.

88. Consider the following statements regarding the structural transformation of the Indian economy:

1. India’s economic growth since the 1990s has been primarily led by the services sector, with a relatively smaller contribution from manufacturing.
2. The “Make in India” initiative aims to increase the manufacturing sector’s share in GDP to 25% and create 100 million additional jobs by 2022.
3. Despite rapid economic growth, the share of the agricultural sector in India’s GDP has consistently declined, while its share in employment remains significant.
4. The phenomenon of “premature deindustrialization” in India refers to the services sector growing rapidly without a strong manufacturing base.

Which of the above statements are correct?

• 1. 1, 2 and 3 only
  2. 1,3 and 4 only
  3. 2,3 and 4 only
  4. All of the above

Correct Answer: D (All of the above)

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Since the economic reforms of the 1990s, India’s growth has been largely driven by the services sector, which has become the dominant contributor to GDP.

Statement 2 is correct: The “Make in India” initiative explicitly aims to boost the manufacturing sector’s contribution to GDP and create a significant number of jobs.

Statement 3 is correct: Despite overall economic growth, the agricultural sector’s share in GDP has steadily declined, even though it still employs a large portion of the workforce.

Statement 4 is correct: “Premature deindustrialization” refers to the situation where a country’s service sector rapidly expands without a corresponding development in the manufacturing sector, which can lead to imbalances in the economy.

89. Which one of the following Article of Indian constitution provides that the law declared by the Supreme Court shall be binding on all courts within the territory of India?

• 1. Article 131
  2. Article 141
  3. Article 144
  4. Article 145

Correct Answer: B (Article 141)

Explanation:

Article 141 of the Indian Constitution explicitly states that the “law declared by the Supreme Court shall be binding on all courts within the territory of India”.

Article 131: Deals with the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court, meaning certain cases can be directly filed there.

Article 144: This article states that all authorities, including the judiciary, must act in aid of the Supreme Court.

Article 145: This article relates to the power of the Supreme Court to make rules for its own proceedings.

90. Which of the following statements about G-20 is NOT correct?

1. The G20 was established in 1999.
2. USA hosted the first G20 Summit of leaders in 2008.
3. The presidency of the G20 rotates every year among member countries.
4. Chile is a member of G20.

Correct Answer: D (Chile is a member of G20)

Explanation: While the G-20 includes many large economies, Chile is not part of the group. The correct statements about the G-20 are:

A) The G20 was established in 1999: This is accurate. The G-20 was founded in 1999 after the Asian financial crisis.

B) USA hosted the first G20 Summit of leaders in 2008: This is also correct. The first G-20 summit was held in Washington, D.C., in 2008.

C) The presidency of the G20 rotates every year among member countries: This is a true fact about the G-20. The rotating presidency ensures that each member country has an opportunity to lead the group’s discussions and agenda.

91. The foundational ideology of the Hindustan Socialist Republican Association was inspired by:

1. Italian nationalist movement and the works of Mazzini
2. Leninist Communism and the Russian Revolution
3. American War of Independence and George Washington
4. Irish freedom struggle and Sinn Fein Movement

Correct Answer: B (Leninist Communism and the Russian Revolution)
Explanation: ‘

The Hindustan Socialist Republican Association (HSRA) was directly influenced by Leninist communism and the Russian Revolution. The founders of the HSRA studied socialist and Marxist ideals to define their political and social goals for an independent India.

The HSRA was influenced by Italian nationalist Giuseppe Mazzini’s revolutionary ideas for uniting Italy and fighting imperialism, which inspired Indian revolutionaries.​

92. Which of the following fundamental rights is available only to Indian citizens and not to foreigners?

1. Right to Equality before Law (Article 14)
2. Freedom of Speech and Expression (Article 19)
3. Protection in respect of conviction for offences (Article 20)
4. Right to Life and Personal Liberty (Article 21)

Correct Answer: B (Freedom of Speech and Expression – Article 19)
Explanation: Article 19 (Freedom of speech and expression) is specifically guaranteed only to Indian citizens, while Articles 14, 20, and 21 are available to all persons.​

93. Match List – I (Geological Structure) with List – II (Economic Importance) and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists

List – I

1. Siwalik Hills
2. Deccan Traps
3. Singhbhum Craton
4. Chhota Nagpur Plateau

List – II

1. Coal, Mica, and Uranium Resources
2. Black cotton soils, Sugarcane agriculture
3. Fossil-rich Sedimentary deposit
4. Rich in Iron ore deposits

Code

1. a-2, b-1, c-3, d-4
2. a-3, b-2, c-1, d-1
3. a-3, b-2, c-4, d-1
4. a-3, b-4, c-2, d-1

Correct Answer:

Explanation: C ( a-3, b-2, c-4, d-1)

(a) Siwalik Hills – 3. Fossil-rich Sedimentary deposit

• The Siwalik Hills are the youngest mountain belt of the Himalayas, known for being one of the world’s richest storehouses of extinct mammalian fossils.
• These fossil-rich sedimentary deposits date back 6 to 16 million years and include a variety of extinct mammals such as elephants, horses, and giraffes.

(b) Deccan Traps – 2. Black cotton soils, Sugarcane agriculture

• The Deccan Traps are a large volcanic province whose basaltic rock has weathered over millions of years to create the fertile black soil known as regur.
• This black cotton soil has excellent moisture-retentive properties and is ideal for cultivating cotton and sugarcane, making it a key agricultural area.

(c) Singhbhum Craton – 4. Rich in Iron ore deposits

• The Singhbhum Craton is a geological region in eastern India, covering parts of Jharkhand and Odisha.
• It is known for its abundant deposits of Banded Iron Formations (BIFs) and other high-quality iron ores, which are crucial for India’s steel industry.

(d) Chhota Nagpur Plateau – 1. Coal, Mica, and Uranium Resources

• Known as the “mineral heartland” of India, the Chhota Nagpur Plateau is rich in a vast variety of mineral resources.
• Major coalfields, including Jharia and Bokaro, are located here. The region is also a global hub for mica and contains significant uranium deposits.

94. As per the Global Hunger Index 2023, India ranks at which position globally?

• 1. 105
  2. 107
  3. 111
  4. 115

Correct Answer: C (111 )

Explanation: In the Global Hunger Index (GHI) 2023, India was ranked 111th out of 125 countries. This was a drop from its 107th position in 2022 and places the country in the “serious” category for hunger levels, with a score of 28.7.

Ranking: 111th out of 125 countries.

Previous Year: India was ranked 107th out of 121 countries in 2022.

Severity: India’s score of 28.7 indicates a “serious” level of hunger.

95. Consider the following statements regarding ecological pyramids:

1. In a parasitic food chain, the pyramid of numbers is always upright.
2. Pyramids of biomass are always inverted in marine ecosystems.
3. Pyramids of energy are never inverted.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• 1. 1 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: B (2 and 3 only)

Explanation:

• Pyramids of biomass can be inverted: In marine ecosystems, the pyramid of biomass is often inverted. The small, rapidly-reproducing phytoplankton (producers) have a low standing biomass at any given time compared to the larger, longer-lived zooplankton and fish (consumers) they support. This makes statement 2 correct.
• Pyramids of energy are never inverted: Energy is lost at each trophic level as it moves up the food chain, primarily as heat. According to the 10% law, only about 10% of the energy is transferred from one level to the next. This loss of energy means that the base of the pyramid (producers) always has the most energy, and it decreases at each successive level, making the pyramid of energy always upright. This makes statement 3 correct.

Why other options are incorrect

• 1. In a parasitic food chain, the pyramid of numbers is always upright: This statement is incorrect. In a parasitic food chain, the pyramid of numbers is typically inverted. For example, a single tree (producer) can support many birds (primary consumers), which in turn can support an even larger number of parasites (secondary consumers).

96. Consider the following statements about the Attorney General of India:

1. He is appointed by the President and holds office during the pleasure of the President.
2. He has the right to participate in proceedings of Parliament but without voting rights.
3. He must have qualifications equivalent to that of a Supreme Court judge.
4. His remuneration is fixed by the Parliament through a law under Article 148 of the Constitution.

Which of the above statements are correct?

1. 1, 2 and 3 only
2. 1 and 2
3. 1, 2 and 4 only
4. 2, 3 and 4 only

Correct Answer: A) 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is correct: The Attorney General (AG) is appointed by the President and serves at the pleasure of the President, meaning they can be removed at any time.
• Statement 2 is correct: The AG has the right to speak and participate in the proceedings of both houses of Parliament and joint sittings, but without the right to vote.
• Statement 3 is correct: To be appointed as AG, a person must be qualified to be appointed a Judge of the Supreme Court.

Why statement 4 is incorrect

• His remuneration is not fixed by Parliament. Article 76(4) of the Constitution states that the AG “shall receive such remuneration as the President may determine”. This is different from the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India, whose salary is fixed by Parliament under Article 148.

97. Which of the following statements about the Chenab Rail Bridge is correct?

1. It is a Cable-stayed bridge.
2. The Chenab Rail Bridge is taller than the Eiffel Tower.
3. It is a part of the Golden Quadrilateral Railway Project.
4. It is the world’s highest Railway arch bridge.

Select the correct answer from the codes given.

1. 1 and 3
2. 3 only
3. 1 only
4. 2 and 4

Correct Answer: D (2 and 4)

Explanation: Chenab Rail Bridge is the world’s highest railway arch bridge and is taller than the Eiffel Tower; it is not a cable-stayed bridge nor part of the Golden Quadrilateral Railway Project.​

• Taller than the Eiffel Tower: The Chenab Rail Bridge is 359 meters (1,178 feet) tall, which is about 35 meters taller than the Eiffel Tower. This makes statement 2 correct.
• World’s Highest Railway Arch Bridge: The bridge is a steel arch bridge and holds the record for being the world’s highest railway arch bridge. This confirms statement 4 is also correct.

Why other options are incorrect

• 1. It is a Cable-stayed bridge: The Chenab Rail Bridge is a steel arch bridge. India’s first cable-stayed rail bridge is the Anji Khad Bridge, which is also part of the same project as the Chenab Bridge.
• 3. It is a part of the Golden Quadrilateral Railway Project: The Chenab Rail Bridge is a crucial part of the Udhampur-Srinagar-Baramulla Rail Link (USBRL) project, which aims to connect the Kashmir Valley with the rest of India. It is not part of the Golden Quadrilateral project.

98. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched regarding Schedules of the Indian Constitution?

• 1. 6th Schedule – Languages recognized by the Constitution
  2. 7th Schedule – Division of powers between Union and States
  3. 8th Schedule – Land Reforms and Ceiling on Landholdings
  4. 9th Schedule – Tribal Areas of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, Mizoram

Correct Answer: B (7th Schedule – Division of powers between Union and States)
Explanation:

• The 7th Schedule lists Union, State, and Concurrent Lists. 6th relates to tribal areas, 8th to recognized languages, 9th schedule to land reform protections.​

99. Which category under the IUCN classification is not directly recognized in the Indian Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972?

• 1. Critically Endangered
  2. Vulnerable
  3. Endemic
  4. Extinct in the Wild

Correct Answer: C (Endemic)

Explanation: ‘Endemic’ is a biological term, not a threat category under Indian Wildlife Protection Act; Critically Endangered, Vulnerable, and Extinct in the Wild are respected categories.​

100. Acetylsalicylic acid is known as:

1. Oil of wintergreen
2. Aspirin
3. Ibuprofen
4. Paracetamol

Correct Answer: B (Aspirin)

Explanation: Acetylsalicylic acid is the chemical name for aspirin, a common analgesic and anti-inflammatory drug.​