Statement 1: "Overshoot occurs when the maximum number of a species an environment
can support indefinitely." This statement is incorrect. The "maximum number of a species
an environment can support indefinitely" is the definition of carrying capacity. Overshoot
occurs when a population's demand on an ecosystem exceeds the ecosystem's capacity to
regenerate the resources it consumes and absorb its wastes. In simpler terms, it's when
consumption exceeds the sustainable limits.
Statement 2: "In 2023, Earth Overshoot Day falls on August 2nd." This statement is correct.
According to the Global Footprint Network, Earth Overshoot Day in 2023 indeed fell on
August 2nd. This date signifies when humanity's demand for ecological resources and
services in a given year exceeds what Earth can regenerate in that year.
Therefore, only statement 2 is correct.

Acid rain is primarily caused by the emission of sulfur dioxide (SO2) and nitrogen oxides
(NOx) into the atmosphere. These gases mostly come from the burning of fossil fuels in
power plants, factories, and vehicles.
When SO2 and NOx are released into the air, they react with water, oxygen, and other
chemicals to form sulfuric acid and nitric acid. These acids then mix with water and other
materials before falling to the ground as acid rain (or other forms of acidic precipitation like
snow, fog, or dry particles).

a) Heliophytes: These are plants that thrive in full sunlight. The prefix "helio-" comes from
the Greek word for sun.
b) Sciophytes: These are plants that prefer shade or low light conditions. The prefix "scio-"
comes from the Greek word for shade.
c) Psamophytes: These are plants that grow in sandy soils. "Psammo-" refers to sand.
d) Dicots: This is a broad classification of flowering plants (angiosperms) characterized by
having two cotyledons (embryonic leaves) in their seeds. It doesn't describe their light
preference.

a) Mutualism: This is exactly what the description entails – a relationship between two
organisms where both parties benefit.
b) Symbiosis: This is a broader term that refers to any close and long-term biological
interaction between two different biological organisms, be it mutualistic, commensalistic, or
parasitic. While mutualism is a type of symbiosis, symbiosis itself doesn't specifically imply
mutual benefit.
c) Parasitism: In parasitism, one organism (the parasite) benefits at the expense of the other
organism (the host). This contradicts the "both benefiting" aspect.
d) Food chain: A food chain describes the feeding relationships between organisms,
showing who eats whom. It doesn't describe a mutualistic relationship between two specific
organisms.

Statement 1: "Biogeochemical cycles enable the transfer of molecules from one locality to
another." This statement is correct. Biogeochemical cycles, such as the water cycle, carbon

cycle, nitrogen cycle, and phosphorus cycle, involve the movement of essential elements
and compounds (in molecular form) through different components of the Earth
(atmosphere, hydrosphere, lithosphere, and biosphere). This movement inherently means
transfer from one locality (e.g., atmosphere) to another (e.g., soil, living organisms).
Statement 2: "Biogeochemical cycles facilitate the storage of elements." This statement is
also correct. Biogeochemical cycles involve various reservoirs or "sinks" where elements can
be stored for varying periods. For example:
• Carbon: Stored in the atmosphere (CO2), oceans (dissolved CO2, carbonates), fossil
fuels, and biomass.
• Nitrogen: Stored in the atmosphere (N2), soil (organic matter, nitrates), and living
organisms.
• Phosphorus: Stored in rocks, sediments, and organic matter.
• Water: Stored in oceans, glaciers, lakes, rivers, and groundwater.
These storage mechanisms are crucial for maintaining the balance of elements in the Earth's
systems.

Statement 1: "A food chain is a chain which shows how organisms are linked to each other
through food." This statement is a correct and fundamental definition of a food chain. It
illustrates the linear flow of energy and nutrients from one organism to another as one
organism consumes another.
Statement 2: "In a grazing food chain, herbivores represent the first trophic level." This
statement is incorrect. In any food chain, including a grazing food chain, the first trophic
level is always occupied by producers (autotrophs), which are typically green plants or other
photosynthetic organisms. Herbivores are primary consumers and occupy the second
trophic level because they consume the producers.
Therefore, the correct answer is a) 1 only.

Statement 1: "The plants represent the first trophic level." Plants are producers. They form
the base of almost all ecosystems, capturing energy (primarily from sunlight) and converting
it into organic matter. This makes them the first trophic level.
Statement 2: "They use light energy and synthesize food on their own." This describes
photosynthesis. Plants are autotrophs, meaning they can produce their own food using light
energy, water, and carbon dioxide.

Therefore, the correct answer is c) Both 1 and 2.

The Lincoln Index is a statistical measure used in ecology to estimate the Population size of
an animal species.
It's based on the "capture-mark-recapture" method, where:
1. A sample of individuals is captured, marked, and released.
2. After a period of time, a second sample is captured.
3. The number of marked individuals in the second sample is used to estimate the total
population size.

Energy Flow: Food chains represent the flow of energy. Energy is lost at each trophic level
(typically around 90%). To support the higher trophic levels, there needs to be a much larger
base of organisms at the bottom.
Pyramid of Numbers: This concept illustrates that the number of individuals generally
decreases as you move up the food chain.
• Producers (e.g., plants, algae): Form the base and are the most numerous because
they convert solar energy into chemical energy, which all other organisms depend
on.
• Primary Consumers (Herbivores): Feed on producers, so their numbers are less than
producers.
• Secondary Consumers (Carnivores/Omnivores): Feed on primary consumers, and
their numbers are even lower.
• Decomposers (e.g., bacteria, fungi): While crucial for nutrient cycling, they are not
typically counted in the "number of individuals" pyramid in the same way as

producers and consumers. Their numbers are vast, but they act at all trophic levels,
breaking down dead organic matter. However, within the context of a typical food
chain structure focusing on energy transfer, producers are numerically dominant.

Statement 1: Habitat is defined as a place where a given species can be found. This
statement is generally correct. A habitat refers to the natural home or environment of an
animal, plant, or other organism. It's the specific place where a species lives and finds all the
resources it needs to survive.
Statement 2: Ecosystem is largely defined as a community of living organisms that interact
with its surrounding. This statement is partially correct but incomplete, making it less
precise. While an ecosystem does involve a community of living organisms (the biotic
components) that interact, a crucial part of its definition is the interaction with the non
living (abiotic) components of its environment. Without including the abiotic factors (like
air, water, soil, sunlight, temperature), the definition of an ecosystem is incomplete. A
community of living organisms interacting with its surrounding could be interpreted broadly,
but the scientific definition of an ecosystem explicitly includes the physical and chemical
environment. Given that Statement 2 misses a crucial element (abiotic components),
Statement 1 is more accurately and completely defined.

Automobiles release a number of pollutants as a result of fuel combustion
and other processes. These commonly include:
• Sulphur Dioxide (SO2): Released from the combustion of fuels containing sulfur,
especially diesel.
• Nitrogen Oxides (NOx): Formed when nitrogen and oxygen react at high
temperatures in the engine.
• Hydrocarbons (HC): Unburnt fuel emitted from the exhaust.
• Carbon Monoxide (CO): A product of incomplete combustion.
• Carbon Dioxide (CO2): A greenhouse gas, a primary product of complete
combustion.
• Particulate Matter (PM): Soot and other fine particles, especially from diesel
engines.
• Volatile Organic Compounds (VOCs): Contribute to smog formation.
• Lead (Pb): Historically a major pollutant from leaded gasoline, now significantly
reduced due to regulations.
However, Radioactive Pollutants are generally not released by
automobiles as a result of their normal operation. Radioactive materials are associated with
nuclear processes (like power generation, medical applications, or weapons), not the
combustion of fossil fuels in vehicles. While there could be extremely rare and accidental
situations where radioactive materials might be transported in a vehicle and then released
in an accident, they are not a typical emission from the vehicle itself.

The principal bench of the National Green Tribunal (NGT) is located in b) New Delhi.
While the NGT has regional benches in Bhopal, Pune, Kolkata, and Chennai (and later
Guwahati was also added), New Delhi serves as its principal place of sitting.

• Ecotype: This term specifically refers to a genetically distinct geographic variety,
population, or race within a species that is adapted to specific environmental
conditions. While members of different ecotypes can still interbreed, they show
differences in their genetic makeup that help them thrive in their particular local
habitat (e.g., differences in flowering time, drought tolerance, cold hardiness).
• Population: A population is simply a group of individuals of the same species living in
the same area at the same time. While an ecotype is a type of population,
"population" itself is a broader term and doesn't inherently imply the genetic
adaptation to local conditions that an ecotype does.
• Ecosystem: An ecosystem is a community of living organisms (plants, animals,
microbes) in conjunction with the non-living components of their environment (e.g.,
air, water, mineral soil), interacting as a system. It's a much larger and more complex
level of organization than a local population of a single species.
• Biome: A biome is a large naturally occurring community of flora and fauna
occupying a major habitat, e.g., forest or tundra. It's an even larger scale,
encompassing multiple ecosystems and diverse species.

Ecological efficiency: The ratio between energy flow at different points in a food chain is
known as ecological efficiency. This term specifically quantifies how efficiently energy is
transferred from one trophic level to the next in an ecosystem. It's often expressed as a
percentage and is commonly associated with the "10% law," which states that only about
10% of the energy from one trophic level is transferred to the next.
Ecological capacity: This refers to an ecosystem's ability to produce biological materials and
absorb waste. It's more about carrying capacity and resource availability for a population or
human activities.
Ecological assimilation: This refers to the process by which organisms incorporate nutrients
from their environment into their own biological structures for growth and reproduction.
While related to energy flow, it's a specific process within an organism, not the ratio
between trophic levels.
Ecological potential: This term is often used in the context of water bodies, particularly
heavily modified or artificial ones, to describe their potential to achieve a good ecological

status despite human alterations. It's not directly related to energy transfer ratios in a food
chain.

Under the recent RBI Framework for green deposits, the following sectors are eligible
for Green Deposits:
• Renewable Energy: This includes projects like solar, wind, biomass, and hydropower.
• Sustainable Water and Waste Management: This covers activities like promoting
water-efficient irrigation, wastewater infrastructure, and water resource
conservation.
• Pollution Prevention and Control: Projects targeting reduction of air emissions,
greenhouse gas control, soil remediation, and various waste management activities
fall under this.
However, the RBI framework specifically excludes the following:
• Nuclear power generation
• Projects involving new or existing extraction, production, and distribution of fossil
fuels.

Therefore, the correct option is b) 1, 2 and 4 only.

Environmental Conventions and Protocols
Ramsar Convention (1971): Promotes the conservation and wise use of wetlands.

CITES (1973): Ensures that international trade in wild animals and plants does not threaten
their survival.
Bonn Convention (1979): Protects migratory species of wild animals.
Vienna Convention (1985): Provides a framework for the protection of the ozone layer.
Montreal Protocol (1987): Phases out the production and consumption of ozone-depleting
substances.
Basel Convention (1989): Controls the transboundary movement of hazardous wastes.
Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) (1992): Aims to conserve biological diversity,
ensure the sustainable use of its components, and promote the fair and equitable sharing of
benefits arising from genetic resources.
UNFCCC (1992): Addresses climate change by stabilizing greenhouse gas concentrations.
Kyoto Protocol (1997): Sets binding targets for industrialized countries to reduce
greenhouse gas emissions.
Rotterdam Convention (1998): Promotes shared responsibility in the trade of hazardous
chemicals.
Cartagena Protocol (2000): Addresses the safe transfer, handling, and use of living modified
organisms.
Stockholm Convention (2001): Aims to eliminate or restrict the production and use of
persistent organic pollutants (POPs).
Nagoya Protocol (2010): Addresses access to genetic resources and the fair and equitable
sharing of benefits.
Minamata Convention (2013): Protects human health and the environment from the
adverse effects of mercury.
Paris Agreement (2015): Aims to limit global warming to well below 2°C, striving for 1.5°C.

Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act, 2016
• The CAF Act was enacted to manage the funds collected for compensatory
afforestation which till then was managed by ad hoc Compensatory Afforestation
Fund Management and Planning Authority (CAMPA).
• Compensatory afforestation means that every time forest land is diverted for non
forest purposes such as mining or industry, the user agency pays for planting forests
over an equal area of non-forest land, or when such land is not available, twice the
area of degraded forest land.
• As per the rules, 90% of the CAF money is to be given to the states while 10% is to
be retained by the Centre.

The National Green Tribunal Act, 2010 : It was established in concurrence with Rio
Summit 1992 to provide judicial and administrative remedies for the victims of the
pollutants and other environmental damage.
It also agrees with Article 21, the Right to a healthy environment for its citizens of the
constitution. The NGT has to dispose of the cases presented to it within 6 months of their
appeals. NGT has original jurisdiction on matters related to substantial questions of the
environment.
NGT deals with the civil cases under the 7 acts related to the environment:
• Water (Prevention And Control Of Pollution) Act, 1974
• Water (Prevention And Control Of Pollution) Cess Act, 1974
• Air (Prevention And Control Of Pollution) Act, 1977
• Forest Conservation Act, 1980
• Environmental Protection Act, 1986
• Public Liability Insurance Act 1991
• Biological Diversity Act, 2002

2 acts have been kept out of the jurisdiction of NGT:
• Wildlife Protection Act, 1972
• Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest
Rights) Act, 2006 (FRA)

Coastal Regulation Zone Notification 2018 : It was notified based on the recommendations
of the Shailesh Nayak Committee.
• To promote sustainable development while taking into account the natural hazards such
as increasing sea levels due to global warming.
• To conserve and protect biodiversity besides livelihood security to local communities
including the fishermen.
CRZs have been classified into 4 zones for regulation:
CRZ I– ecologically sensitive areas such as mangroves, coral reefs, salt marshes, turtle
nesting ground, and the inter-tidal zone.
CRZ II– areas close to the shoreline, and which have been developed.
CRZ III- Coastal areas that are not substantially built up, including rural coastal areas.
CRZ IV- water area from Low Tide Line (LTL) to the limit of territorial waters of India.

The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974
Objective: To provide prevention and control of water pollution. Maintaining or restoring of
wholesomeness and purity of water in the various sources of water.
The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981 : The act aims to control and
prevent air pollution in India and its main objectives are:
• To provide for prevention, control, and abatement of air pollution.
• To provide for the establishment of the boards at the central and state levels to
implement the act.
It vests regulatory authority in Centre Pollution Control Boards (CPCB) and State Pollution
Control Board (SPCB)

The Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972: The Act provides for the protection of wild
animals, birds, and plants; and for matters connected therewith or ancillary or incidental
thereto. It extends to the whole of India. It has six schedules that give varying degrees of
protection:
• Schedule I and Part II of Schedule provide absolute protection, offences under these are
prescribed the highest penalties.
• Species listed in Schedule III and Schedule IV are also protected, but the penalties are
much lower.
• Animals under Schedule V, e.g. common crows, fruit bats, rats, and mice, are legally
considered vermin and may be hunted freely.
• The specified endemic plants in Schedule VI are prohibited from cultivation and planting.
Statutory bodies under WPA:
• National Board for Wildlife and state wildlife advisory boards

• Central Zoo Authority
• Wildlife Crime Control Bureau
• National Tiger Conservation Authority

The India State of Forest Report (ISFR) 2023 indicates that India's total forest and tree cover
is 827,357 square kilometers, representing 25.17% of the country's geographical area. This
includes 715,343 square kilometers of forest cover and 112,014 square kilometers of tree
cover. The report also shows a marginal increase in forest and tree cover compared to the
2021 assessment.
Key Findings:

Total Forest and Tree Cover: 827,357 square kilometers, 25.17% of India's geographical
area.
Forest Cover: 715,343 square kilometers, 21.76% of India's geographical area.
Tree Cover: 112,014 square kilometers, 3.41% of India's geographical area.
Increase in Forest and Tree Cover: A rise of 1445 square kilometers compared to the 2021
assessment, including a 156 square kilometer increase in forest cover and a 1289 square
kilometer increase in tree cover.
States with Maximum Increase: Chhattisgarh, Uttar Pradesh, Odisha, and Rajasthan.
States with Largest Forest Cover: Madhya Pradesh, Arunachal Pradesh, and Maharashtra.
The India State of Forest Report (ISFR) 2023 indicates that Odisha has a total forest and tree
cover of 36.70% of its geographical area. Odisha also saw a significant increase in mangrove
cover, with an 8 sq km increase, the highest in the country. The state's forest size, excluding
tree cover, increased by 151.89 sq km between 2021 and 2023.

Environment-Related Provisions in the Indian Constitution: Environment protection is
mentioned in the Indian Constitution as part of Directive Principles of State Policy as well as
Fundamental Duties.
Directive Principles of State Policy (Part IV) Article 48A: Protection and improvement of the
environment and safeguarding of forests and wildlife The State shall endeavor to protect
and improve the environment and to safeguard the forests and wildlife of the country.
Fundamental duties (Part IV A) Article 51A (g): To protect and improve the natural
environment including forests, lakes, rivers, and wildlife, and to have compassion for living
creatures.

Biosphere Reserve: Biosphere reserves are sites established by countries and
recognized under UNESCO's Man and the Biosphere (MAB) Programme to promote
sustainable development based on local community efforts and sound science. The
programme of Biosphere Reserve was initiated by UNESCO in 1971.
The purpose of the formation of the biosphere reserve is to conserve in situ all forms of life,
along with its support system, in its totality, so that it could serve as a referral system for
monitoring and evaluating changes in natural ecosystems.
The first biosphere reserve of the world was established in 1979, since then the
network of biosphere reserves has increased to 631 in 119 countries across the world.

Elephant Reserves: The Indian elephant Elephas maximus occurs in the central and
southern Western Ghats, North-east India, eastern India and northern India and in some
parts of southern peninsular India. It is included in Schedule I of the Indian Wildlife
(Protection) Act, 1972 and in Appendix I of the Convention on International Trade in
Endangered Species of Flora and Fauna (CITES).
It occurs in 16 of the 28 states in the country. Project Elephant was launched by
the Government of India in the year 1992 as a Centrally Sponsored Scheme with following
objectives:
1. To protect elephants, their habitat & corridors
2. To address issues of man-animal conflict
3. Welfare of captive elephants
The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change provides the
financial and technical support to major elephant range states in the country through
Project Elephant.

Tiger Reserves:
Project Tiger was launched by the Government of India in the year 1973 to save the
endangered species of tiger in the country.
India's tiger population has seen a notable increase in recent years, with the 2022
estimation placing the number at approximately 3,682.

Biodiversity Hotspots
• A region qualifies as a biodiversity hotspot if it meets two criteria: it must contain at
least 1,500 species of endemic vascular plants (species found nowhere else) and it
must have lost at least 70% of its original natural vegetation. This indicates both
high biodiversity and a significant threat of habitat loss, making the area a priority
for conservation.
• Himalayas: This region includes the Western, Central, and Eastern Himalayas, known
for their high-altitude ecosystems and diverse flora and fauna.
• Western Ghats: Extending along India's western coast, this region is a hotspot for
endemic plants and animals, including the Nilgiri Tahr and Lion-tailed Macaque.
• Indo-Burma Region: This hotspot encompasses parts of northeastern India,
Myanmar, and Southeast Asia, known for its rich biodiversity of amphibians, birds,
and reptiles.
• Sundaland: Located in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands, this region is renowned for
its marine biodiversity and unique terrestrial species.

Spatial Components of Biological Diversity
• Alpha Diversity: This measures the species richness and evenness within a specific
habitat, community, or ecosystem. It essentially counts the number of different
species present in a given area.
• Beta Diversity: This measures the difference in species composition between
different habitats or ecosystems. It quantifies how much the species composition
changes as you move from one ecosystem to another.
• Gamma Diversity: This represents the overall species diversity across a larger
geographic region, encompassing multiple ecosystems. It considers all the species
found within a given landscape or region.

Measurement of Biodiversity: The Biological Diversity is defined and measured
through two components — richness and evenness.
• Richness: Richness refers to the number of species. Thus, it is usually called Species
Richness.
• Evenness: Evenness is proportions of species or functional groups present on a site.
The more equal species are in proportion to each other, the greater is the evenness
of the site. A site with low evenness indicates that a few species dominate the site.

Statement 1: "A niche is unique for a species while many species share the habitat." This
statement is correct. A niche is highly specific to a species' ecological role, while a habitat is
a broader physical location that can house many different species.
Statement 2: "Two species in a habitat can have the same niche." This statement is
incorrect. If two species were to occupy the exact same niche, they would be in direct
competition for identical resources, and eventually, one would outcompete the other. This
is a fundamental concept in ecology known as the competitive exclusion principle.

Statement 1: "Marine ecosystems show inverted biomass pyramids." This statement is
correct. In many marine ecosystems, the primary producers are phytoplankton. While they
reproduce very rapidly, their individual biomass at any given moment is relatively small
compared to the biomass of the zooplankton (primary consumers) that feed on them, and
even smaller compared to the biomass of larger fish at higher trophic levels. Because
phytoplankton have a high turnover rate (they are consumed quickly and reproduce
quickly), a small standing crop of producers can support a larger standing crop of
consumers, leading to an inverted biomass pyramid.
Statement 2: "The pyramid of biomass in a grassland ecosystem is upright." This statement
is correct. In a grassland ecosystem, the producers (grasses) have a significantly larger
biomass than the primary consumers (herbivores like deer, rabbits, etc.) that feed on them.
The biomass then further decreases at each successive trophic level (secondary consumers,
tertiary consumers). This results in a typical upright pyramid shape, where the base
(producers) is the widest and the top (top carnivores) is the narrowest.

Statement 1: "Edge effect refers to the changes in population or community structures at
the boundary of two biome." This statement is correct. The "edge effect" (or ecotone
effect) describes the ecological changes, both in species composition and abundance, that
occur at the boundary or transition zone (ecotone) between two distinct habitats or
ecosystems (which can be biomes, but also smaller scale habitats like a forest edge and a
grassland). This transition zone often exhibits characteristics of both adjacent communities
and can have unique conditions not found in either.
Statement 2: "In terrestrial ecosystems edge effect is especially applicable to birds." This
statement is also correct. Birds are often highly affected by edge effects. Many bird species
thrive in edge habitats because these areas provide a greater variety of resources – access
to food from both adjacent habitats, increased structural diversity for nesting and foraging,
and often denser vegetation for cover. Conversely, some interior forest species are
negatively impacted by edges due to increased predation risk or habitat fragmentation. This
makes birds a prominent example when discussing edge effects in terrestrial ecosystems.

Statement 1: "It is an initiative by the UNEP." This statement is incorrect. The Green Skill
Development Programme (GSDP) is an initiative of the Ministry of Environment, Forest and
Climate Change (MoEF&CC), Government of India. It was launched in June 2017. While the
UNEP might acknowledge or collaborate on similar global initiatives, the GSDP in India is a
national program.
Statement 2: "It will help in the attainment of the Intended Nationally Determined
Contributions (INDCs), Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) and National Biodiversity
Targets(NBT)." This statement is correct. The primary objective of the GSDP is to create a
workforce of green-skilled professionals who possess the technical knowledge and
commitment to sustainable development. This aligns directly with India's efforts to achieve
its environmental and sustainable development goals, including:
o Intended Nationally Determined Contributions (INDCs) / Nationally
Determined Contributions (NDCs): India's commitments under the Paris
Agreement to reduce greenhouse gas emissions and adapt to climate change.
o Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs): The global goals set by the United
Nations for sustainable development by 2030, many of which have
environmental dimensions (e.g., clean energy, sustainable cities, climate
action, life below water, life on land).
o National Biodiversity Targets (NBTs): India's national targets for biodiversity
conservation, aligned with the Aichi Biodiversity Targets.
o It also supports the implementation of Waste Management Rules (2016).

Therefore, only statement 2 is correct.

According to the provided information, "Carrot grass" is not considered an invasive
plant among the listed options; "Pithecellobium dulce", "Water hyacinth", and "West Indian
lantana" are all recognized as invasive plants.

The capacity of an ecosystem for self-regulation, maintaining its stability and
internal balance in response to disturbances, is known as Homeostasis.
Thrombosis: This is the formation of a blood clot (thrombus) inside a blood vessel,
obstructing the flow of blood.
Hibernation: This is a state of minimal metabolic activity and lowered body temperature
adopted by some animals during winter.

Chlorophyll, the primary pigment in plant leaves, is highly optimized for
photosynthesis. It absorbs specific wavelengths of light from the sun's spectrum. Based on
scientific understanding and absorption spectra:
• Chlorophyll primarily absorbs light in the blue-violet and red regions of the visible
spectrum.
• It reflects green light, which is why most plants appear green to our eyes.
Therefore, the waves of sunlight that chlorophyll cells are perfectly optimized
to absorb are Red & Blue.

• 1974: Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act (3)
• 1981: Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act (2)
• 1986: Environment (Protection) Act (4)
• 1991: Public Liability Insurance Act (1)
So the correct chronological order is 3 - 2 - 4 - 1.

Statement 1: "The Faster Adoption and Manufacturing of Electric Vehicles (FAME) scheme
was launched in April 2016 under the National Electric Mobility Mission." The FAME India
Scheme (Phase I) was launched on April 1, 2015, as part of the National Electric Mobility
Mission Plan (NEMMP) 2020. Phase II of FAME was launched in April 2019. Therefore, the
launch date in the statement (April 2016) is incorrect.
Statement 2: "The programme also finances charging infrastructures." This statement is
correct. Both FAME Phase I and Phase II explicitly included provisions for financing and
establishing charging infrastructure. Phase I focused on four key areas, one of which was
charging infrastructure, and sanctioned 520 charging stations. Phase II also has a significant
component dedicated to charging infrastructure, with plans to establish thousands of
charging stations across cities and highways.

Statement a) The ISA is a collaborative initiative between India and France aimed at uniting
efforts to combat climate change by implementing solar energy solutions. It was
conceptualized on the side lines of COP21 in Paris in 2015. Following a 2020 amendment to
its Framework Agreement, all UN member states are now eligible to join the Alliance.
Currently, 100+ countries are signatories, with 90+ countries having ratified to become full
members. Its mission is to unlock $1 trillion in solar investments by 2030 while reducing
technology and financing costs.
Statement b) "In 2017, ISA became the first international intergovernmental organisation to
be headquartered in India." For example, "With the signing and ratification of the ISA
Framework Agreement by 15 countries on 6 December 2017, ISA became the first
international intergovernmental organisation to be headquartered in India". Its
headquarters are in Gurugram, Haryana.

Permafrost is ground that remains completely frozen (at or below 0°C) for at
least two consecutive years. It is a defining characteristic of the tundra biome.
Biomes with permafrost are most likely located near the poles and without any
trees: This accurately describes the tundra biome. Tundra is found in the Arctic regions (near
the North Pole) and at high altitudes globally. Due to the extremely cold temperatures,
short growing season, and the presence of permafrost (which prevents deep root
penetration), trees are largely absent, with vegetation consisting mainly of low-growing
plants like mosses, lichens, grasses, and dwarf shrubs.

Epilimnion: This is the uppermost layer, which is warm and well-mixed by wind and solar
radiation. Its temperature is relatively uniform.
Thermocline (or Metalimnion): This is the middle layer where the temperature changes
most rapidly with increasing depth. It acts as a transitional zone between the warmer
surface water and the colder deep water.
Hypolimnion: This is the deepest layer, which is cold, dense, and relatively undisturbed. Its
temperature is also relatively uniform, but much colder than the epilimnion.

Eutrophication is the process where a body of water becomes excessively enriched
with nutrients, primarily nitrogen and phosphorus. This leads to an overgrowth of algae and
aquatic plants (algal blooms).
Impact on water body:

• Increased plant growth: The excess nutrients stimulate rapid growth of algae and
other aquatic plants.
• Algal blooms: These dense growths of algae often cover the surface of the water,
blocking sunlight from reaching submerged plants.
• Death of submerged plants: Without sunlight, submerged plants die.
• Decomposition: When the excessive algae and other plants die, decomposers
(bacteria and other microorganisms) break them down.
• Oxygen depletion: The decomposition process by these microorganisms consumes a
large amount of dissolved oxygen from the water. This reduction in dissolved oxygen
is often severe enough to create "dead zones" or hypoxic/anoxic conditions, where
fish and other aquatic organisms cannot survive.
Therefore, eutrophication primarily causes a reduction in dissolved oxygen. While it
increases nutrients in the water, it does not directly reduce dissolved salts.

The term that measures our direct emissions of CO2 from the burning of fossil fuels,
including domestic energy consumption and transportation, is the Primary footprint.
• Primary footprint refers to the direct emissions of carbon dioxide from the burning
of fossil fuels for energy and transportation.
• Carbon footprint is a broader term encompassing all greenhouse gas emissions
caused by an activity or accumulated over the life cycle of a product, often expressed
as carbon dioxide equivalent. It includes both direct and indirect emissions.
• Secondary footprint refers to indirect emissions from the consumption of goods and
services, taking into account the entire life cycle of products.
• CO2 footprint is sometimes used interchangeably with carbon footprint but "primary
footprint" specifically denotes the direct emissions described in the question.

Blue baby syndrome, scientifically known as methemoglobinemia, is caused by nitrate
pollution.
Mercury pollution: Causes diseases like Minamata disease, affecting the nervous system.

Sulphate pollution: Can lead to issues like acid rain or have laxative effects in high
concentrations, but not blue baby syndrome.

An ecosystem encompasses both the living components (biotic factors, such
as plants, animals, and microorganisms that form a community) and the non-living physical
and chemical components (abiotic factors, such as soil, water, air, sunlight, and
temperature) of an area, and the interactions between them.

1. Grazing food chains begin with photosynthetic plants. This statement is correct.
Grazing food chains, also known as predator food chains, start with producers (autotrophs)
that create their own food through photosynthesis. These are typically green plants on land
or phytoplankton in aquatic environments.
2. Primary carnivores form the second link in the grazing food chain. This statement is
incorrect. In a grazing food chain:
• The first link is the producer (photosynthetic plants).
• The second link is the primary consumer (herbivore), which feeds on the producer.
• Primary carnivores are secondary consumers; they feed on primary consumers
(herbivores), thus forming the third link (or higher, depending on how you define
"link" in the entire chain, but they are never the second link).

Mycoremediation is a form of bioremediation where fungi are used to decontaminate an
area by degrading or isolating contaminants in soil and water. The fungi produce enzymes
that break down various pollutants.

a) Bretton Woods Conference: This conference (1944) established the International
Monetary Fund (IMF) and the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development
(IBRD, now part of the World Bank Group). Its primary aim was to regulate the international

monetary and financial order after World War II. It has no association with ozone-depleting
substances.
b) Montreal Protocol: The Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer is
a landmark international treaty designed to protect the ozone layer by phasing out the
production of numerous substances responsible for ozone depletion. This directly matches
the question.
c) Kyoto Protocol: The Kyoto Protocol is an international treaty (adopted in 1997) that
commits state parties to reduce greenhouse gas emissions, based on the premise that global
warming exists and human-made CO₂ emissions have caused it. It is associated with climate
change, not ozone depletion.
d) Nagoya Protocol: The Nagoya Protocol on Access to Genetic Resources and the Fair and
Equitable Sharing of Benefits Arising from their Utilization (ABS) is an international
agreement (adopted in 2010) aiming at sharing the benefits arising from the utilization of
genetic resources in a fair and equitable way. It is related to biodiversity, not ozone
depletion.

The 'Brundtland Commission Report', formally known as 'Our Common Future',
was published in 1987 by the World Commission on Environment and Development (WCED).
This report is widely credited with popularizing and defining the term sustainable
development.
The definition provided in the report is: "development that meets the needs of the present
without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs."
• Polluter-Pays Principle: This principle was adopted by the OECD in 1972, long before
the Brundtland Report.
• Inclusive Growth: This term emerged in the early 2000s, often associated with
organizations like the World Bank, as a response to concerns about the uneven
distribution of benefits from economic growth.
• Carrying Capacity: This term has much older origins, debated to be from the 1840s in
shipping contexts or 19th-century laboratory experiments, and later developed in
ecology and population studies.
Therefore, the term specifically coined and popularized by the Brundtland Commission
Report is sustainable development.

The Basel Convention is an international treaty that came into force in 1992. Its
primary objective is to protect human health and the environment from the adverse effects
of the transboundary movement and disposal of hazardous wastes.
a) Protect the environment from Persistent Organic Pollutants: This is primarily associated
with the Stockholm Convention.
b) Phasing out hydro-fluorocarbons: This is addressed by the Kigali Amendment to the
Montreal Protocol.
c) Control of Transboundary Movements of Hazardous Wastes and Their Disposal: This
perfectly describes the main objective of the Basel Convention.
d) Sustainable use of Biodiversity: This is a broad goal addressed by conventions like the
Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) and its protocols (e.g., Nagoya Protocol).
Therefore, the Basel Convention is associated with the control of
transboundary movements of hazardous wastes and their disposal.

1. Specific density is the density per unit of total space: In ecological contexts,
"specific density" (also known as "ecological density") refers to the number of
individuals or biomass per unit of habitable space or actual occupied area. Density
per unit of total space is typically referred to as "crude density" or "arithmetic
density." Therefore, this statement is incorrect.
2. Density per unit of habitable space is called Crude density: As mentioned above,
"crude density" (or arithmetic density) is the density per unit of total space. Density
per unit of habitable space is called "specific density" or "ecological density."
Therefore, this statement is also incorrect.
Since both statements are incorrect, the correct option is "Neither 1 nor 2"

1. Lichen is a symbiotic partnership of two separate organisms, a fungus and an
alga. This statement is correct. A lichen is a composite organism that arises from
algae or cyanobacteria living among filaments of multiple fungal species in a
mutualistic relationship. The fungus provides structure and protection, while the
alga/cyanobacterium provides food through photosynthesis.
1. Lichen is an example of indicator species. This statement is also correct. Lichens are
highly sensitive to air pollution, especially sulfur dioxide. Their presence, absence, or
changes in their growth forms can indicate the level of air pollution in an area. For
this reason, they are widely used as bioindicators of air quality.

Catabolism is a set of metabolic pathways that break down complex molecules
into simpler ones, releasing energy in the process. It is essentially the destructive or
degradative phase of metabolism.
1. It refers to the degradation of detritus into simpler inorganic substances. This
process is known as decomposition or mineralization, which involves the breakdown

of complex organic matter (detritus) into simpler inorganic compounds by
decomposers (like bacteria and fungi). This breakdown fundamentally involves
catabolic reactions.
2. It is the transformation of larvae into full-grown insects. This process is called
metamorphosis, which is a developmental process involving growth and
differentiation, encompassing both catabolic and anabolic reactions, but not
exclusively catabolism.
3. It is the act of consumption of another individual of the same species. This is
cannibalism, a feeding behavior, not a metabolic process like catabolism.
4. It is the process of fat accumulation in living organisms. This is an anabolic process
(specifically lipogenesis), where complex molecules (fats) are synthesized from
simpler ones, requiring energy.

1. Keystone species are the small-sized plants and organisms which have large effect
on the environment. This statement is incorrect. The defining characteristic of a
keystone species is its disproportionately large impact on its environment or
ecosystem, relative to its abundance or biomass. The size of the organism (small or
large) is not a criterion for being a keystone species. For example, a large predator
like a wolf can be a keystone species, as can a small sea otter or even a specific type
of fungus. Thus, only statement 1 is incorrect.
2. Keystone species play critical role in maintaining the structure of an ecological
community. This statement is correct. Keystone species are crucial for maintaining
the balance, structure, and diversity of an ecosystem. Their removal often leads to
significant changes in the population dynamics of other species and can even cause
the collapse of the ecosystem.

Joseph Fourier, a French mathematician and physicist, is widely credited with
postulating the concept of the greenhouse effect in the 1820s. He suggested that the Earth's
atmosphere acts as an insulator, retaining heat and keeping the planet warmer than it
would otherwise be if only heated by direct solar radiation. While he didn't use the exact
term "greenhouse effect," his work laid the foundational understanding for it. Later
scientists like Eunice Newton Foote, John Tyndall, and Svante Arrhenius further developed
and quantified the understanding of specific greenhouse gases and their impact.

Phytoplankton → Zooplankton → Fish
• Phytoplankton are microscopic photosynthetic organisms (producers) in water.
• Zooplankton are small aquatic animals that feed on phytoplankton (primary
consumers).
• Fish (often small fish) feed on zooplankton (secondary consumers).
• This is a classic and correct aquatic food chain, representing the flow of energy from
producers to consumers.

A. Biodiversity: The term "biodiversity" was popularized by E.O. Wilson (Edward O. Wilson),
an American biologist, primarily through his 1988 book "Biodiversity".
B. Wildlife: W.T. Hornaday (William Temple Hornaday) was a prominent American zoologist
and conservationist who was instrumental in the early wildlife conservation movement in
the United States and significantly influenced the concept and protection of "wildlife".

C. Ecosystem: The term "ecosystem" was coined by A.G. Tansley (Arthur George Tansley), a
British botanist, in 1935.
D. Ecology: The term "ecology" was coined by Ernst Haeckel (E. Haeckel), a German
biologist, in 1866.
Therefore, the correct matches are: A - 2 (E.O. Wilson) B - 4 (W.T. Hornaday) C - 1
(G. Tansley) D - 3 (E. Haeckel)

Assertion (A): Ecological productivity decreases from the equator towards the poles. This
statement is true. Ecological productivity, particularly primary productivity (the rate at
which energy is converted by photosynthetic and chemosynthetic autotrophs to organic

substances), is generally highest in tropical regions near the equator due to abundant
sunlight, warm temperatures, and often high precipitation. As one moves towards the poles,
temperature and solar radiation decrease significantly, leading to lower rates of
photosynthesis and thus lower overall ecological productivity in terrestrial and many aquatic
ecosystems.
Reason (R): Insolation rapidly decreases from the equator towards the poles. This
statement is also true. Insolation (incoming solar radiation) is highest at the equator
because the sun's rays strike the Earth's surface most directly. As latitude increases towards
the poles, the angle at which the sun's rays hit the Earth becomes more oblique, spreading
the same amount of solar energy over a larger surface area and also causing the rays to pass
through a greater thickness of atmosphere, leading to more absorption and scattering. This
results in a rapid decrease in insolation as one moves from the equator to the poles.
Relationship between A and R: The decrease in insolation (Reason R) directly explains the
decrease in ecological productivity (Assertion A). Sunlight is the fundamental energy source
for almost all ecosystems via photosynthesis. Less available solar energy means less primary
production, which in turn limits the energy available for higher trophic levels, thus reducing
overall ecological productivity.
Therefore, both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

1.Ecosystem comprises both biotic and abiotic components.

o This statement is true. An ecosystem is fundamentally defined by the
interaction between living organisms (biotic components like plants, animals,
microorganisms) and their non-living physical and chemical environment
(abiotic components like sunlight, water, soil, temperature, nutrients).
2. Solar radiation is the main driving force of the ecosystem.
o This statement is true. For most ecosystems on Earth, solar energy is the
primary energy source. It drives photosynthesis in producers (plants, algae,
cyanobacteria), which forms the base of almost all food webs and thus
powers the entire ecosystem.
3. Ecosystem is a closed system.
o This statement is false. An ecosystem is an open system. Energy flows
through an ecosystem (e.g., solar energy enters, heat energy leaves), and
matter (like water, carbon, nitrogen) is constantly exchanged with the
surrounding environment (e.g., atmosphere, lithosphere, hydrosphere). A
closed system would mean no exchange with the outside, which is not
characteristic of an ecosystem.
4. Ecosystem does not have its own productivity.

This statement is false. Ecosystems are characterized by their productivity.
Primary productivity is the rate at which producers convert solar (or
chemical) energy into organic compounds. Secondary productivity is the rate
at which consumers convert the energy of their food into their own biomass.
Productivity is a key measure of an ecosystem's health and function.

Based on the analysis, only statements 1 and 2 are true.

a) Biosphere — Eduard Suess: This is a correct match. The term "biosphere" was coined by
the Austrian geologist Eduard Suess in 1875 to refer to the sum of the planet's ecosystems,
essentially the global ecological system integrating all living beings and their relationships,
including their interaction with the elements of the lithosphere, hydrosphere and
atmosphere.
b) Ecosystem — A.P. de Candolle: This is an incorrect match. The term "ecosystem" was
coined by A.G. Tansley in 1935. A.P. de Candolle was a Swiss botanist known for his work in
plant taxonomy and phytogeography in the early 19th century.
c) Ecology — A.G. Tansley: This is an incorrect match. The term "ecology" was coined by
Ernst Haeckel in 1866. A.G. Tansley is known for coining the term "ecosystem."
d) Biodiversity — Reiter: This is an incorrect match. The term "biodiversity" is a contraction
of "biological diversity," which was coined by Walter G. Rosen in 1985. It was then
popularized by E.O. Wilson in his 1988 book "Biodiversity." Reiter is not typically associated
with coining this term.

India joined the Mangrove Alliance for Climate (MAC) at the 27th session of the
Conference of the Parties (COP27) in Sharm el-Sheikh, Egypt. COP27 took place in November
2022. Therefore, India signed the Mangrove Alliance for Climate in 2022.

1. The World Network of Biosphere Reserves is created by UNEP. This statement is
incorrect. The World Network of Biosphere Reserves (WNBR) is established and
coordinated by the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization
(UNESCO) under its Man and the Biosphere (MAB) Programme. UNEP (United
Nations Environment Programme) is a different UN entity.
2. The Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve was the first biosphere reserve in India designated in
the year 1976 by UNESCO. This statement is also incorrect. While the Nilgiri
Biosphere Reserve was indeed the first biosphere reserve in India, it was designated
by the Government of India in 1986, not 1976. Its inclusion in the UNESCO World
Network of Biosphere Reserves happened much later, in the year 2000.
Since both statements are incorrect, the correct option is "Neither 1 nor 2".

Zymogens (also known as proenzymes) are inactive precursor forms of
enzymes. They require a biochemical change, such as cleavage of a peptide bond, to
become an active enzyme. This mechanism is crucial for controlling enzyme activity in
biological systems.

For the successful formulation and implementation of any plan, a comprehensive approach
is required, involving several key elements.
Planning Commission, Statistical data, Objectives:
• Planning Commission (or a similar central planning body): An institutional framework
is often essential to conceptualize, design, and coordinate the plan.

• Statistical data: Accurate and comprehensive data is fundamental for understanding
the current situation, identifying needs, setting realistic goals, and monitoring
progress.
• Objectives: Clearly defined, measurable, achievable, relevant, and time-bound
(SMART) objectives provide direction and purpose to the plan.
Fixation of Targets and Priorities, Mobilisation of Resources:
• Fixation of Targets and Priorities: Translating objectives into specific, quantifiable
targets and deciding which areas or goals to focus on first is vital for effective
implementation.
• Mobilisation of Resources: Identifying and securing the necessary financial, human,
and material resources is absolutely critical for the plan to move from concept to
reality.
Incorrupt and Efficient Administration, Proper Development Policy:
• Incorrupt and Efficient Administration: Even the best plans will fail without a
competent, honest, and effective administrative machinery to implement them.
• Proper Development Policy: The overarching policy framework must be conducive to
the plan's goals, providing the necessary guidelines and support.
Economy in Administration, Education base:

• Economy in Administration: Efficient management of resources, minimizing waste,
and maximizing output are crucial for the sustainability and success of any plan,
especially large-scale ones.
• Education base: A skilled, knowledgeable, and adaptable workforce (derived from a
strong education base) is a vital human resource for implementing complex plans
and driving development. An informed public also facilitates cooperation and
participation.
• These significantly contribute to the success and long-term sustainability of the plan.

A compact settlement is most probably surrounded by hamlets. A compact settlement
(also known as a nucleated or clustered settlement) is characterized by a close grouping of
houses and buildings, often centered around a common feature like a well, temple, or
market. Hamlets are very small clusters of dwellings, often peripheral to a larger village or
town. In many rural landscapes, a larger, more developed compact settlement serves as a
service and administrative center for surrounding smaller agricultural communities or
scattered dwellings, which can be termed hamlets. This spatial arrangement is quite
common, especially in fertile plains or valleys where intensive agriculture supports a central
hub. Therefore, it is highly probable for a compact settlement to be surrounded by
dependent hamlets. This statement is correct.
2. Compact settlements are not found in the Himalayan region. The Himalayan region is
known for its rugged terrain, steep slopes, and often harsh climatic conditions. These factors
generally favor dispersed settlements, where houses are scattered due to limited flat land
for agriculture, difficult accessibility, and the need to utilize scattered resources. However,
stating that compact settlements are not found at all in the Himalayan region is an
overgeneralization and incorrect. While less dominant than dispersed patterns, compact
settlements do exist in parts of the Himalayas, particularly in river valleys, on relatively
flatter terraces suitable for cultivation, or in strategic locations for trade or defense. Many
older towns and administrative centers in the Himalayas show characteristics of compact
settlements.
Given the analysis, only statement 1 is correct.

a) After reaching to the Himalayan ranges the south-west monsoons retreats: While the
Himalayas influence the southwest monsoon, the retreat is a broader atmospheric
phenomenon linked to seasonal pressure changes, not simply a reversal at the mountains.
b) The apparent movement of the Sun: The apparent movement of the Sun (southward
migration after the summer solstice) is the underlying cause for the seasonal shift in global
pressure belts and heating patterns. This causes the landmass to cool, leading to the
development of high pressure, which in turn causes the monsoon to retreat. So, it's a
fundamental driver, but not the direct atmospheric condition itself.
c) The expansion of the high pressure belt from north-western part to south-eastern part
of India: This statement accurately describes the atmospheric condition directly responsible
for the retreating monsoon. As the landmass in northern India cools down (following the
southward apparent movement of the sun), the low-pressure trough associated with the
summer monsoon weakens and is replaced by a high-pressure system. This high-pressure
system gradually expands from the northwest to the southeast, causing the monsoon winds
to withdraw or reverse direction. The winds then blow from the high-pressure land towards
the low-pressure areas over the Bay of Bengal.

d) The occurrence of variability in the atmospheric pressure developed over the Indian
sub-continent: This is a too general statement. While pressure variability is constant, it
doesn't specify the type of variability that causes the retreat.

a) Nitrogen dioxide (NO2): While NO2 is a nitrogen oxide, it's primarily an air pollutant
often formed from combustion processes. It's not a direct or primary gaseous product of the
bacterial breakdown of fertilizers in soil.
b) Nitrous oxide (N2O): This is a potent greenhouse gas that is a well-known byproduct of
both nitrification and denitrification carried out by soil bacteria. Its release is a major
environmental concern associated with nitrogen fertilizer use.
c) Nitrogen trioxide (NO3): This is not a common or stable gaseous compound released
from soil in this context. Nitrate (NO3-) is an ion in solution.
d) Nitrogen (N2): This is the most abundant gas in the atmosphere and is the final product
of complete denitrification, returning nitrogen gas to the atmosphere. While N2 is released,
N2O is also a significant gaseous emission, especially concerning its environmental impact as
a greenhouse gas. However, given the context of fertilizer breakdown and common
concerns, N2O is a very prominent answer.

1. It is the movement of molecules of solvent from a region of its higher
concentration to a region of its lower concentration. This statement is correct.
Osmosis is specifically the net movement of solvent molecules (typically water)
across a selectively permeable membrane. This movement occurs from an area

where the solvent concentration is higher (meaning a lower solute concentration) to
an area where the solvent concentration is lower (meaning a higher solute
concentration). The driving force is the difference in water potential or solvent
potential.
2. It is observed in living cells and tissues of all organisms. This statement is also
correct. Osmosis is a fundamental biological process essential for life. It plays a
critical role in maintaining water balance, nutrient uptake, waste removal, and
turgor pressure in plant cells. This process is ubiquitous across all forms of life, from
single-celled bacteria to complex multicellular organisms (plants, animals, fungi,
protists). All living cells have a cell membrane that acts as a selectively permeable
barrier, making osmosis a universal phenomenon in biological systems.
Since both statements are correct, the appropriate option is (c). The final
answer is Both 1 and 2.

PESA Act, 1996 extends the provisions of Panchayats (Part IX of the constitution) to the
Fifth Schedule Areas.
• The Provisions of the Panchayats (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996
(PESA Act) was indeed enacted to extend the provisions of Part IX of the
Constitution, which deals with Panchayats, to the Scheduled Areas mentioned in the
Fifth Schedule, with certain modifications and exceptions to protect tribal self-rule.
This statement is correct.
The 72nd constitutional amendment gave shape to a three-tier Panchayati Raj Institution.
• This statement is incorrect. The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992, gave
constitutional status to the Panchayati Raj Institutions and mandated a three-tier
system (village, intermediate, and district levels) in states with a population
exceeding 20 lakhs. The 72nd Amendment Act (1992) pertains to the reservation of
seats for Scheduled Tribes in the Legislative Assembly of Tripura.

Global Forest Watch (GFW) is a dynamic online forest monitoring and alert system.
It was established by the World Resources Institute (WRI) in 1997 as part of their Forest
Frontiers Initiative. While it has many partners, including Google, USAID, and UNEP, WRI is
recognized as the organization that created and launched it.

1. The Ghats runs through the States of Kerala, Maharashtra and Gujarat only. This
statement is incorrect. The Western Ghats is a mountain range that runs roughly
parallel to the western coast of the Indian peninsula. It passes through six Indian
states:
• Gujarat
• Maharashtra
• Goa
• Karnataka
• Kerala
• Tamil Nadu
2. They are recognized as one of the world’s eight ‘hottest hotspots’ of biological
diversity. This statement is incorrect in its phrasing. The Western Ghats is indeed
recognized as one of the world's most significant biodiversity hotspots. However,
the term "eight 'hottest hotspots'" is not a standard or precise classification. There
are generally considered to be 36 biodiversity hotspots globally, and the Western
Ghats (along with Sri Lanka) is one of them, known for its exceptional biodiversity
and high levels of endemism. While it's critically important, the specific phrasing
"eight 'hottest hotspots'" is not accurate terminology from conservation
organizations like Conservation International, which defines the hotspots. It is one of
the top biodiversity hotspots, but not necessarily "one of the eight 'hottest'".
Since both statements contain inaccuracies, neither is correct.

1. Blue hydrogen is produced when natural gas is split into hydrogen and carbon
dioxide. This statement is correct. Blue hydrogen is produced from natural gas
(methane, CH4) through processes like steam methane reforming (SMR) or
autothermal reforming (ATR). In these processes, methane reacts with steam or
oxygen to yield hydrogen (H2) and carbon dioxide (CO2). The defining characteristic
of blue hydrogen is that the CO2 produced is captured and stored (Carbon Capture,
Utilization, and Storage - CCUS), preventing its release into the atmosphere.
2. Green hydrogen is produced when hydrogen is produced by splitting water by
electrolysis. This statement is correct. Green hydrogen is produced by the
electrolysis of water (H2O), which splits water into hydrogen (H2) and oxygen (O2).
The crucial aspect that makes it "green" is that the electricity used for this
electrolysis comes entirely from renewable energy sources such as solar, wind, or
hydropower, resulting in no greenhouse gas emissions during the production
process.
3. Brown hydrogen is formed through coal gasification. This statement is correct.
Brown hydrogen (sometimes also referred to as black hydrogen) is produced from
coal using processes like coal gasification. This method is highly carbon-intensive as it
releases significant amounts of carbon dioxide and other pollutants into the
atmosphere, as no carbon capture is involved.
All three statements accurately describe the respective types of
hydrogen production.

1. It is a measure of the impact of people’s activities on the amount of carbon dioxide
produced. This statement is largely correct. A carbon footprint is defined as the total
amount of greenhouse gases (GHGs) generated by our actions. While it often focuses
on carbon dioxide (CO2), it typically includes other GHGs (like methane, CH4, and
nitrous oxide, N2O) expressed in terms of their equivalent amount of CO2 (CO2e)
based on their global warming potential. So, it directly measures the impact of
activities by quantifying the associated CO2 (and equivalents) emissions.
2. It is strictly the same as the ecological footprint. This statement is incorrect.
o Carbon Footprint specifically measures the amount of greenhouse gas
emissions (often expressed in tons of CO2e) resulting from an activity or
entity.
o Ecological Footprint is a much broader concept. It measures the amount of
biologically productive land and sea area required to produce the resources
an individual, population, or activity consumes and to absorb the waste they
generate. The carbon footprint is a major component (often the largest part)
of the ecological footprint, representing the land area needed to absorb
carbon emissions. However, the ecological footprint also accounts for
demands on cropland, grazing land, fishing grounds, forest products, and
built-up land. They are related but not "strictly the same."
Therefore, only statement 1 is correct.

1. Dissolved Oxygen (DO) is a measure of the amount of free oxygen available in river
systems. This statement is correct. Dissolved oxygen (DO) refers to the
concentration of gaseous oxygen (O2) that is dissolved in water. It is a crucial
indicator of water quality because aquatic organisms, such as fish and invertebrates,
need sufficient dissolved oxygen to survive and thrive.
2. The higher value of Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) indicates low DO content
of water. This statement is also correct. Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) is a
measure of the amount of oxygen consumed by microorganisms (primarily bacteria)
as they decompose organic matter in water.
o A high BOD value signifies a large amount of organic pollution in the water
(e.g., from sewage, industrial waste, or decaying plant matter).
o When there's a lot of organic matter, the microorganisms proliferate and
consume large quantities of dissolved oxygen during their decomposition
process.
o This increased consumption of DO by decomposers leads to a decrease in the
actual DO content available for other aquatic life. Therefore, high BOD is
inversely related to DO, meaning high BOD indicates low DO.
Both statements accurately describe key aspects of dissolved oxygen and
biochemical oxygen demand.

Emission Gap Report: This report is indeed published annually by the United Nations
Environment Programme (UNEP). It assesses the gap between current greenhouse gas
emission trajectories and the levels needed to achieve the goals of the Paris Agreement
(limiting global warming to well below 2°C, preferably to 1.5°C).
Global Environment Outlook (GEO): The GEO report series is UNEP's flagship assessment of
the state of the global environment. It is also published by the United Nations Environment
Programme (UNEP).
Invest into Healthy Planet: While UNEP does publish a variety of reports and advocacy
materials related to "healthy planet" and investment in environmental solutions, "Invest
into Healthy Planet" specifically appears to be a publication or advocacy brief from UNEP
making a case for investment in its work and environmental solutions, rather than a
standalone flagship report series like the other two. However, it is certainly associated with
and published by UNEP in the context of its overall mission and resources. For example, a

document titled "Invest in a Healthy Planet Invest in UN Environment" is found on the UNEP
website.
Given that all three are either direct flagship reports or publications/initiatives of
UNEP, the most fitting answer is that all of them are associated with UNEP's publications.

1. It is the world's largest nesting beach of Olive Ridley Sea Turtles. This statement is
correct. Gahirmatha beach in Odisha is indeed renowned globally as the largest mass
nesting site (arribada) for Olive Ridley Sea Turtles.
2. Gahirmatha is the only turtle sanctuary in Odisha. This statement is also correct.
Gahirmatha Marine Sanctuary, established in 1997, is the only marine sanctuary in
Odisha, and it was primarily declared for the conservation of Olive Ridley sea turtles.
While other areas like Rushikulya and Devi River mouth are important nesting sites,
Gahirmatha holds the distinction of being the dedicated marine sanctuary for turtles
in the state.
Therefore, both statements are correct.

1. It is the world's second-largest lagoon. This statement is correct. Chilika Lake is widely
recognized as the largest brackish water lagoon in Asia and the second-largest coastal
lagoon in the world. The New Caledonian Barrier Reef lagoon is generally considered the
largest.
2. It is designated as the first Indian wetland under the Ramsar Convention. This statement
is also correct. Chilika Lake was designated as a Wetland of International Importance (a
Ramsar site) on October 1, 1981, making it the first such site in India (along with Keoladeo
Ghana National Park).
Since both statements are correct, the answer is c).

A mass extinction event is when species vanish much faster than they are replaced. This
statement is correct. A mass extinction event is characterized by a widespread and rapid
decrease in the biodiversity on Earth. Such an event occurs when the rate of species
extinction far exceeds the background extinction rate (the normal rate at which species
disappear).
Earth has never witnessed a mass extinction event until now. This statement is incorrect.
Earth has a well-documented history of five major mass extinction events before the
current era. These include:
• The Ordovician-Silurian extinction (approx. 443 million years ago)
• The Late Devonian extinction (approx. 372 million years ago)

• The Permian-Triassic extinction (approx. 252 million years ago - "The Great Dying")
• The Triassic-Jurassic extinction (approx. 201 million years ago)
• The Cretaceous-Paleogene (K-Pg) extinction (approx. 66 million years ago - which
wiped out the non-avian dinosaurs)
Many scientists also argue that Earth is currently experiencing a sixth mass extinction
event, primarily driven by human activities.

1. Volatile Organic Molecules (VOCs) are carbon containing chemicals released by
vehicular emissions only. This statement is incorrect for two reasons:
• "only": VOCs are indeed carbon-containing chemicals (organic chemicals that have a
high vapor pressure at room temperature). However, they are released from a wide
variety of sources, not only vehicular emissions. Other significant sources include
industrial processes, paints, solvents, cleaning products, cosmetics, burning wood,
and even natural sources like plants.
• "Molecules" vs. "Compounds": While VOCs are molecules, the term "Volatile
Organic Compounds" (VOCs) is the more commonly accepted and accurate
terminology in environmental science.
2. The majority of the VOCs are carcinogenic. This statement is also incorrect. While some
VOCs are indeed known carcinogens (e.g., benzene, formaldehyde), the majority of VOCs
are not classified as carcinogenic. Many VOCs contribute to other health issues (like
respiratory problems, eye/nose/throat irritation, headaches) and environmental problems
(like ground-level ozone formation, a key component of smog), but not all or even most are
carcinogenic.
Therefore, neither statement is correct.

Non-conventional energy sources are essentially those that are renewable and are not
traditionally used on a large scale like fossil fuels. They are replenished naturally over a
relatively short period of time.
a) Produced from heat: While some non-conventional sources like geothermal energy
involve heat, this isn't a defining characteristic of all non-conventional sources (e.g., wind
energy).
b) Produced from electricity: This is incorrect. Energy sources are used to produce
electricity, not the other way around.
c) Non-renewable: This is the opposite of what non-conventional energy sources are.
Conventional energy sources (like coal, oil, natural gas) are non-renewable.
d) Renewable: This is the correct answer. Non-conventional energy sources like solar, wind,
hydro, tidal, geothermal, and biomass are all renewable, meaning they can be naturally
replenished.

Sustainable Development is defined as development that meets the needs of the
present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs.

This inherently involves using natural resources in a way that minimizes degradation and
ensures their availability for the long term.

a) It was launched during PM Modi's visit to Fiji in 2014. This statement is correct. FIPIC
was indeed launched in November 2014 during Prime Minister Narendra Modi's visit to Fiji.
b) FIPIC includes 14 island countries. This statement is correct. FIPIC includes India and 14
Pacific Island countries: Cook Islands, Fiji, Kiribati, Marshall Islands, Micronesia, Nauru, Niue,
Palau, Papua New Guinea, Samoa, Solomon Islands, Tonga, Tuvalu, and Vanuatu.
c) FIPIC III Summit was held in Papua New Guinea in 2023. This statement is correct. The
third FIPIC Summit (FIPIC III) was held in Port Moresby, Papua New Guinea, on May 22,
2023.
d) No FIPIC summit is yet conducted in India. This statement is incorrect. The second FIPIC
Summit (FIPIC II) was held in Jaipur, India, on August 21-22, 2015.

Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism (CBAM):
Its primary objective is to avert ‘carbon leakage’. This statement is correct. Carbon leakage
refers to the situation where companies might move carbon-intensive production to
countries with less stringent climate policies to avoid carbon costs. The CBAM aims to
prevent this by imposing a carbon price on certain imports into the EU, effectively leveling
the playing field with EU domestic producers who already face carbon costs under the EU
Emissions Trading System (ETS).
CBAM will initially apply to imports from the Chemical and Textile sector. This statement is
incorrect. The CBAM initially applies to imports of goods in the following sectors:
• Cement

• Iron and Steel
• Aluminium
• Fertilizers
• Electricity
• Hydrogen
While the scope of CBAM might be expanded to include other sectors like chemicals and
petroleum products in the future, these were not part of the initial implementation.

Denitrification is a crucial step in the nitrogen cycle where nitrates (NO3−) and nitrites
(NO2−) are converted back into gaseous nitrogen (N2) or nitrous oxide (N2O), which are

then released into the atmosphere. This process is carried out by a specific group of
bacteria, primarily under anaerobic (oxygen-poor) conditions.
Nitrogen cycle:
• a) Nitrosomonas: These are nitrifying bacteria. They perform the first step of
nitrification, oxidizing ammonia (NH3) to nitrite (NO2−).
• b) Nitrobacter: These are also nitrifying bacteria. They perform the second step of
nitrification, oxidizing nitrite (NO2−) to nitrate (NO3−).
• c) Pseudomonas: Many species of Pseudomonas are well-known denitrifying
bacteria. They play a significant role in converting nitrates and nitrites into nitrogen
gas, thus completing the nitrogen cycle. Other common denitrifying bacteria include
Bacillus, Paracoccus, and Thiobacillus.
• d) Rhizobium: These are nitrogen-fixing bacteria. They form a symbiotic relationship
with leguminous plants, converting atmospheric nitrogen (N2) into ammonia (NH3),
which the plants can use.
Therefore, the bacteria that help in the denitrification process is Pseudomonas.

Iron (specifically iron oxides like hematite, ferric oxide, or rust) is abundant in the parent
rocks from which red soils are formed (e.g., crystalline and metamorphic rocks like granite
and gneiss).
When these rocks undergo weathering, the iron compounds are oxidized, leading to the
formation of reddish-brown iron oxides, which give the soil its characteristic red hue.
• a) Phosphoric Acid: While red soils can be deficient in phosphoric acid, it does not
contribute to their color.
• b) Humus: Humus is organic matter that typically gives soil a darker, brownish, or
blackish color. Red soils are generally low in humus.
• c) Nitrogen: Nitrogen is a vital nutrient for plants but does not impart a red color to
the soil. Red soils are often deficient in nitrogen.
• d) Iron: This is the correct answer. The presence of iron oxides is responsible for the
red color.

Benthic (adjective): Pertaining to the bottom of a body of water.
Benthos (noun): The organisms (plants, animals, and microorganisms) that live on, in, or
near the bottom of a body of water.
• a) Benthic refers to the floor of the sea and benthos refers to plants and animals
that live there. This statement is true. "Benthic" describes the floor, and "benthos"
describes the life on it.
• b) Benthos refers to the floor of the sea and benthic refers to plants and animals
that live there. This statement reverses the definitions and is incorrect.

• c) Benthos refers to the flora of the sea and benthic refers to animals that live
there. This is incorrect as "benthos" includes both flora and fauna, and "benthic"
refers to the habitat, not the organisms.
• d) Benthos and benthic both refer to animals that live there. This is incorrect;
"benthic" is an adjective for the habitat, and "benthos" includes both plants and
animals.

The term "superbug" in the context of oil degradation most famously refers to a
genetically engineered bacterium developed by Ananda Mohan Chakrabarty in 1971. This
bacterium was a strain of Pseudomonas putida.
a) Staphylococcus aureus: This is a common bacterium known for causing various
infections, including staph infections. It's not associated with oil degradation.
b) Streptococcus pyrogenes: This bacterium is known for causing strep throat and other
serious infections. It's not used for oil degradation.
c) Pseudomonas putida: This is the correct answer. The genetically engineered
Pseudomonas putida is widely recognized as the "superbug" developed for oil spill cleanup.
d) Bacillus subtilis: While Bacillus subtilis is a versatile bacterium used in various
biotechnological applications (e.g., probiotics, enzyme production), it is not the "superbug"
famously associated with oil degradation in the context of Chakrabarty's work.

The classic "breath test" (often referring to a Breathalyzer, which was a brand name for an
early device) used by traffic police relies on a chemical reaction to detect alcohol.
The primary chemical involved is potassium dichromate (K2Cr2O7) in the presence of
sulfuric acid (H2SO4).
Here's how it works:
• When a person who has consumed alcohol exhales into the device, the alcohol
(ethanol) in their breath reacts with the orange-colored potassium dichromate
solution.
• In this redox (reduction-oxidation) reaction, the ethanol is oxidized to acetic acid,
while the orange dichromate ion (Cr2O72−) is reduced to green chromium(III) ions
(Cr3+).
• The sulfuric acid provides the acidic environment necessary for this reaction to occur
effectively.
• The degree of color change (from orange to green) is proportional to the amount of
alcohol present in the breath, which is then translated into an estimated blood
alcohol content (BAC).

'Global Compact for Migration' (GCM):
1. The Global Compact for Migration is the first-ever UN global agreement on a
common approach to international migration in all its dimensions. This statement
is correct. The GCM was adopted by the United Nations General Assembly on
December 19, 2018, and is indeed the first intergovernmentally negotiated
agreement under the auspices of the United Nations to cover all dimensions of
international migration in a holistic and comprehensive manner.
2. GCM is legally binding. This statement is incorrect. The Global Compact for
Migration is explicitly stated to be a non-legally binding, cooperative framework. It
upholds the sovereignty of states and their obligations under international law, but it
does not create new legally binding obligations. Its purpose is to provide a
comprehensive framework for cooperation among states on international migration.
Therefore, only statement 1 is correct.

India's first Geological Park, approved by the Geological Survey of India, is located at
Lamheta, in the Jabalpur district of Madhya Pradesh.
This site is significant due to its rich geological heritage, including dinosaur fossils found in
the Narmada valley, particularly in the Bhedaghat-Lameta Ghat area. UNESCO has also
recognized Lamheta as a geo-heritage site.

Statement 1: Chlorine is highly effective against most bacteria but less so against hardy
spores and some viruses, which require much higher doses or are entirely resistant. So, in
practical terms of typical water treatment, it might not "affect" them sufficiently.
Statement 2: Ozone is indeed a stronger disinfectant and very effective against viruses, and
it also breaks down residual chlorine.
Both statements highlight common characteristics and comparisons between these
disinfectants.
Therefore, both statements are generally considered correct in the context of their practical
application and limitations in water purification.

a) Ornithophily: Pollination by birds (Ornitho- means bird).
b) Elelophily: This term is not standard for pollination. Perhaps a typo for something else,
but not a recognized form of pollination.
c) Myrmecophily: Pollination by ants (Myrmeco- means ant). More commonly refers to
symbiotic relationships with ants.
d) Psychophily: Pollination by butterflies (Psycho- refers to butterfly, from the Greek word
psyche meaning butterfly or soul).
Therefore, pollination by butterflies is called Psychophily.

To arrange the peaks/hills from north to south in the Western Ghats, let's identify their
approximate locations:
• Bababudan Hills (IV): Located in Karnataka, in the northern part of the southern
Western Ghats.
• Ooty (II): A hill station in the Nilgiri Hills, Tamil Nadu. The Nilgiris are south of
Karnataka.
• Doddabetta (I): The highest peak in the Nilgiri Hills, near Ooty, Tamil Nadu.
• Anaimudi (III): The highest peak in the Western Ghats and South India, located in
Kerala, further south than the Nilgiris.
So, the order from North to South would be:

1. Bababudan (Karnataka)
2. Ooty (Nilgiri Hills, Tamil Nadu)
3. Doddabetta (Nilgiri Hills, Tamil Nadu - very close to Ooty but often listed as a
prominent peak)
4. Anaimudi (Kerala)
Therefore, the correct sequence is Bababudan (IV), Ooty (II), Doddabetta (I), Anaimudi (III).
This matches option d) IV, II, I, III.

Oil Shale: This is a sedimentary rock that contains a solid organic compound called kerogen.
When this rock is heated to a high temperature (a process called retorting), the kerogen
decomposes to produce shale oil (a synthetic crude oil), as well as shale gas and spent shale.
So, statement 2's definition of "Shale Oil" is actually a good description of "Oil Shale."
Shale Oil: This is the synthetic crude oil extracted from oil shale through the retorting
process. It's not a rock itself, but the liquid product derived from oil shale.

The State Bird of Odisha is the Indian Roller, which is also commonly known as the Blue Jay
or "Neelkanth" in some regional languages.

The initiative jointly launched by the Ministry of Food Processing Industry, Ministry of Tribal
Affairs, and TRIFED to enhance the income of tribal people through better utilization of
Minor Forest Produce is the TRIFOOD smchee.

While other options are related to tribal welfare and Minor Forest Produce (MFP):
• Van Dhan Vikas Yojana is a flagship initiative of the Ministry of Tribal Affairs and
TRIFED aimed at providing livelihood opportunities to tribal gatherers by
transforming them into entrepreneurs through value addition of MFPs. It sets up Van
Dhan Vikas Kendras.
• MSP for MFP scheme (Minimum Support Price for Minor Forest Produce) is also by
the Ministry of Tribal Affairs and TRIFED, aimed at ensuring fair prices for tribal
gatherers for MFPs.
• "Non Timber Forest Produces Marketing" is a general term for activities in this
sector, not a specific initiative launched by these three ministries together.
The TRIFOOD scheme specifically focuses on establishing tertiary value addition centers for
tribal food products, which is a joint initiative of these three ministries.

Thermal power plants primarily burn coal to generate electricity. This combustion
process releases a variety of gases and particulate matter into the atmosphere.
1. Carbon dioxide (CO2): Coal is a carbon-rich fossil fuel. When it burns, the carbon
combines with oxygen, producing large amounts of carbon dioxide. CO2 is a major
greenhouse gas and a significant contributor to climate change.
2. Oxides of Nitrogen (NOx): High temperatures during coal combustion cause nitrogen
and oxygen in the air to react, forming various nitrogen oxides (NO and NO2,
collectively referred to as NOx). These are significant air pollutants contributing to
smog and acid rain.
3. Oxides of Sulphur (SOx): Coal naturally contains sulfur. When coal is burned, this
sulfur reacts with oxygen to form sulfur dioxide (SO2) and, to a lesser extent, sulfur
trioxide (SO3). These are also major air pollutants that contribute to acid rain and
respiratory problems.
Therefore, all three, Carbon dioxide, Oxides of Nitrogen, and Oxides of Sulphur, are
emissions from coal combustion at thermal power plants.

• Producers: Organisms that produce their own food, usually through photosynthesis.
In aquatic environments, these are often phytoplankton like diatoms.
• Primary Consumers (Herbivores): Organisms that feed on producers. Crustaceans
(small aquatic invertebrates like copepods) often graze on diatoms.
• Secondary Consumers (Carnivores): Organisms that feed on primary consumers.
Herrings are fish that consume smaller invertebrates like crustaceans.
Let's analyze the options:
• a) Diatoms-Crustaceans-Herrings:
o Diatoms (Producers)
o Crustaceans (Primary Consumers, eat diatoms)
o Herrings (Secondary Consumers, eat crustaceans) This sequence follows the
correct flow of energy.
• b) Crustaceans-Diatoms-Herrings: Incorrect. Crustaceans cannot be producers, and
diatoms cannot be eaten by crustaceans and then eat herrings.

• c) Diatoms-Herrings-Crustaceans: Incorrect. Herrings typically eat crustaceans, not
the other way around, and diatoms are eaten by crustaceans, not herrings directly.
• d) Crustaceans-Herrings-Diatoms: Incorrect. This reverses the energy flow entirely.
Therefore, the correct sequence representing a plausible food chain is Diatoms (producer)
→ Crustaceans (primary consumer) → Herrings (secondary consumer).

Nokrek Biosphere Reserve : Garo Hills This pair is correctly matched. Nokrek Biosphere
Reserve is indeed located in the Garo Hills of Meghalaya, India. It's known for being the
highest peak in the Garo Hills.
Loktak Lake : Barail Range This pair is incorrectly matched. Loktak Lake is a large freshwater
lake located in Manipur, in the northeastern part of India. The Barail Range, on the other
hand, is a mountain range that primarily lies in Assam and Nagaland.
Namdapha National Park : Dafla Hills This pair is incorrectly matched. Namdapha National
Park is located in the Changlang district of Arunachal Pradesh. It is situated between the
Dapha Bum range of the Mishmi Hills and the Patkai range, not the Dafla Hills. The Dafla
Hills are located further west in Arunachal Pradesh.

Lichens are fascinating organisms that are a classic example of a symbiotic relationship.
They are composed of a fungus and a photosynthetic partner, which can be either algae
(usually green algae) or cyanobacteria (also known as blue-green algae).