Lok Sabha                                                                       Rajya Sabha
House of People                                                              Council of States
Strength: 552 members                                                   Strength : 250
• It will last for 5 years.                                                     It is a permanent body.
• It can be dissolved sooner if
motion of no confidence is
passed.

People's House, where those who are                      The representatives of the Council of     eligible to vote can elect their                                   States are elected indirectly by the elected
representatives in direct elections.                            representatives of the Assemblies of
States and Union Territories.

The Lok Sabha's maximum strength is                     The Rajya Sabha has a maximum strength
set at 550 members, with 530                                  of 250 members (of which 238 are
representing the states and 20                                 representatives of states and UTs (elected
representing the union territories.                            indirectly) and 12 are appointed by the

President).

The Lok Sabha's most essential role is to              • The members of state legislative
choose the executive, a group of people                 assemblies elect the state
who work together to carry out the                         representatives.
legislation passed by Parliament                           • Members of an electoral college
specifically established for the
representatives of each UT in the
Rajya Sabha.

Most bills begin in Lok Sabha and are                   • The Rajya Sabha is responsible for
returned to Lok Sabha for approval after                  examining and amending laws
passing through Rajya Sabha. It has a                       passed by the Lok Sabha
significant impact on legislation.
• It can also propose legislation,
which must first pass through the

Rajya Sabha before becoming law.

All ministers, including the Prime                      The States are represented in the Rajya
Minister, must resign if a majority of Lok          Sabha. As a result, any matter affecting
Sabha members express "no                             the States must be referred to it for
confidence" in the Council of Ministers.            approval and consent.

According to Article 358, when a proclamation of national emergency is made, the
six Fundamental Rights under Article 19 are automatically suspended. No separate order for
their suspension is required. A national emergency could be declared for the entire country
or only a portion of it.
The President, however, can proclaim a national emergency only after receiving
a written recommendation from the cabinet. During a national emergency, the Parliament
becomes empowered to make laws on any subject mentioned in the State List. Although the
legislative power of a state legislature is not suspended, it becomes subject to the overriding
power of the Parliament.

A person to be appointed as Attorney General of India should be qualified to be
appointed a judge of the Supreme Court which means he should be a judge of some high
court for five years or an advocate of some high court for ten years.
Procedures and grounds for the removal of AG are not stated in the
Constitution. S/he holds office during the pleasure of the President (may be removed by
the President at any time).

The strength of any council shall not exceed 1/3rd of the strength of the state
assembly. But for smaller states, the minimum strength of the council can be 40. The
members of the Legislative Councils comprise of people elected through five different
constituencies.
1. One third (1/3rd) of the members are elected by representatives of the Local
Authorities (like Municipalities, Zilla Parishads, Block Parishads etc)

57 Published by: OPSC STUDY [ Contact at: 9348274675 (Telegram/ WhatsApp)] Website: www.opscstudy.com

2. One third (1/3rd) of the members are elected by members of the Legislative
Assembly (the same person can’t be a member of both the houses)
3. One-twelfth (1/12th) of the members are elected by the Graduates in the state
4. One-twelfth (1/12th) of the members are elected by the Teachers in the state
5. The remaining members are nominated by the Governor. Those nominated by the
Governor should have special knowledge or practical experience in Literature,
science, art, co-operative movement and social service.

• Odisha MLA List includes 147 members of the Odisha Legislative Assembly.
• 10 Rajya Sabha members are elected to Rajya Sabha by Members of the Odisha
State Legislature.
• In Odisha, there are currently 21 Lok Sabha constituencies, each represented by a
single MP. Of these, 13 seats are for general candidates and 4 each reserve for SC
and ST candidates.

Statements 1 and 2 are correct:
Vertical reservations are provisions aimed at addressing social asymmetry arising out of
caste hierarchy, and in the case of OBCs, social and educational “backwardness”. These
include reservations for Scheduled Castes (SC), Scheduled Tribes (ST) and Other Backward
Classes (OBC).
Horizontal reservation, on the other hand, cuts across all vertical groups to provide
affirmative policies for disadvantaged groups within categories. Horizontal reservation
refers to the equal opportunity provided to other categories of beneficiaries such as
women, veterans, the transgender community, and individuals with disabilities, cutting
through the vertical categories.

The Ninth Schedule contains a list of central and state laws which cannot be challenged in
courts and was added by the Constitution (First Amendment) Act, 1951. which was enacted
during the prime ministership of Jawaharlal Nehru.

A Constitution Amendment Bill under article 368 can be introduced in either
House of Parliament and has to be passed by each House by special majority.
The Constitution does not prescribe the time frame within which the state
legislatures should ratify or reject an amendment submitted to them. Also, it is silent on the
issue whether the states can withdraw their approval after according the same.
Elections to Parliament and state legislature, Salaries and allowances of the
members of Parliament can be amended by a simple majority of the two houses of
Parliament outside the scope of Article 368.

Disputes arising out of the election of the President/ Vice-President shall be
decided by the Supreme Court . The authority having jurisdiction to try an election petition
shall be the Supreme Court.

Preamble is an introductory statement of Indian constitution that presents the
principles, objectives and sources of authority of the Constitution. It was adopted on 26
November 1949 by the Constituent Assembly and came into effect on 26 January 1950.
It was amended only once by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act in
1976, which added the words “socialist”, “secular” and “unity and integrity of the nation”
to the Preamble. The Supreme Court has held that the Preamble is a part of the
Constitution and can be used to interpret its provisions, but it is not enforceable in a court
of law. In the Berubari Union case (1960), the Supreme Court held that the Preamble is not
a source of power or a limitation on power, but a declaration of the objectives of the

Constitution. Therefore, based on these sources, only statement a) in your question is
correct.
In Kesavananda Bharati Case: The Court held that: The Preamble of the
Constitution will now be considered as part of the Constitution.

Article 164 of the Indian Constitution deals with the appointment, oath, responsibility,
salary and disqualification of the Chief Minister and the Council of Ministers in the States.
The statement that is not included in Article 164 is b) The Council of Ministers shall not be
collectively responsible to the State Legislature. This statement is false, as Article 164(2)
clearly states that The Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the
Legislative Assembly of the State. Therefore, the correct answer to your question is b) 2
only.

Fundamental duties under Article 51A serve as a reminder to the citizens that while
enjoying their rights, they should also be conscious of duties they owe to their country,
their society and to their fellow citizens.
Originally, the Indian constitution did not provide any formal list of duties for its citizens. But
through the 42nd Constitutional Amendment, in 1976, fundamental duties were added to
the Indian Constitution.
Fundamental Duties are non-justifiable in nature. Citizens cannot be forced to adhere to
them as they are not legally enforceable by the court for their violation.
The Fundamental Duties are dealt with in Article 51A under Part-IV A of the Indian
Constitution. The topic is important for IAS Exam as questions are recurring in all its three

stages – Prelims, Mains and Interview. This article will mention in detail the 11 Fundamental
Duties and their importance in India.

Article 51A: Fundamental duties
It shall be the duty of every citizen of India –
(a) to abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals and institutions, the National Flag and
the National Anthem;

(b) to cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired our national struggle for freedom;
(c) to uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India;
(d) to defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so;
(e) to promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood amongst all the people of
India transcending religious, linguistic and regional or sectional diversities; to renounce
practices derogatory to the dignity of women;
(f) to value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture;
(g) to protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers and wild
life, and to have compassion for living creatures;
(h) to develop the scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform;
(i) to safeguard public property and to abjure violence;
(j) to strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity so that the
nation constantly rises to higher levels of endeavour and achievement.
(k) to provide opportunities for education by the parent the guardian, to his child, or a ward
between the age of 6-14 years as the case may be.

For every state, there is a legislature, which consists of Governor and one House or, two
Houses as the case may be. In Bihar, Jammu and Kashmir, Karnataka, Maharashtra and
Uttar Pradesh, there are two Houses known as legislative council and legislative assembly. In
the remaining states, there is only one House known as legislative assembly. Parliament
may, by law, provide for abolition of an existing legislative council or for creation of one
where it does not exist, if proposal is supported by a resolution of the legislative assembly
concerned.

The Judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by the President under clause (2)
of Article 124 of the Constitution.

Statement 1 and Statement 2 are Correct:
Procedure and powers of the Commission: The Commission shall determine their
procedure and in the performance of their functions shall have all the powers of a civil
court under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 (5 of 1908), while trying a suit in respect of
the following matters, namely:--
• summoning and enforcing the attendance of witnesses;
• requiring the production of any document;
• requisitioning any public record from any court or office

Statement 1 is incorrect: He can promulgate an ordinance only when both the Houses of
Parliament are not in session .An ordinance can also be issued when only one House is in
session because a law can be passed by both the Houses and not by one House alone.
An ordinance made when both the Houses are in session is void. Thus, the power of the
President to legislate by ordinance is not a parallel power of legislation.
Statement 2 is correct: President can issue ordinance when one of the houses of the
Parliament is not in session. The maximum validity of an ordinance is 6 months and 6 weeks.
An ordinance will expire after 6 weeks once both houses of the Parliament are in session. A
constitutional amendment cannot be made through ordinance route.
This is because a constitutional amendment requires a special majority in both houses of
Parliament, unlike an ordinary legislation that can be approved by a simple majority.
Moreover, some amendments may require the approval of half of the states as well with a
special majority of parliament.

Statement 1 is incorrect: The President can transfer a judge from one high court to
another after consulting the Chief Justice of India (not Governor).In third judge case
supreme court said that in case of transfer of high court judges, the chief justice of India
should consult, in addition to the collegium of the four senior most judges of supreme court,
the chief justice of the two concerned high court. On transfer he is entitled to receive in
addition to his salary such compensatory allowance as may be determined by Parliament.
Statement 2 is correct: In 1994 the SC held that judicial review is necessary to check
arbitrariness in transfer of judges but only the judge who is transferred can challenge it.

Composition and Qualification of Finance Commission:
The Constitution of India under Article 280 provides for a Finance Commission as a
quasi-judicial body. The President of India constitutes the Finance Commission every fifth
year or at such an earlier time as he considers necessary. The Finance Commission
comprises a chairman and four other members to be appointed by the president. They hold
office for such a period as specified by the president in his order. They are eligible for
reappointment. The Parliament (Authorized by the Constitution) determines the
qualifications of members of the commission and the manner in which they should be
selected.
The qualifications specified by the Parliament are
The Finance Commission consists of the Chairman and members of the
commission. The chairman should be a person having experience in public affairs and the
four other members should be selected from amongst the following:
1. A judge of the high court or one qualified to be appointed as one.
2. A person who has specialized knowledge of finance and accounts of the government.

3. A person who has wide experience in financial matters and in administration.
4. A person who has special knowledge of economics.

The Model Code of Conduct (MCC) is a set of guidelines issued by the Election Commission
of India for conduct of political parties & candidates during elections.
The norms have been evolved with the consensus of political parties who have
consented to abide by the principles embodied in the said code and also binds them to
respect and observe it in it’s letter and spirit. The Model Code also prescribes guidelines for
the ruling party either at the Center or in the State to ensure that a level field is maintained
and that no cause is given for any complaint that the ruling party has used its official
position for the purposes of its election campaign. The model code of conduct cannot be
enforceable by law because it is not statutory.
Statement 1 is incorrect: Model code of conduct is not mentioned anywhere in the
constitution. Therefore, it does not have constitutional authenticity and nor is a source of
constitutional power of the Election Commission.
Statement 2 is incorrect: No provision of model code of conduct has been made in the
Representation of People Act, 1951.Thus, it is not statutorily binding.

Option b is correct: Election Commission of India gets the power to advise the president on
matters relating to the disqualification of a Member of Parliament from Representation of
Peoples Act, 1951.
Section 8 of the Representation of Peoples Act, 1951 mentions the disqualification of MP
and MLA.
In 2018, the Election Commission advised the President to disqualify 20 AAP MLA due to
the office of profit.

Statement 1 is Correct: The CAG is appointed by the President of India by warrant under his
hand and seal.
Statement 2 is Incorrect: Section IV of the Third Schedule of the Constitution lays down the
form of oath or affirmation for both the Judges of the Supreme Court as well as the
Comptroller and Auditor General of India.

The power conferred on the Commission under Article 324 (1) is subjected to two
limitations, namely
Statement 1 is correct: When Parliament or any State Legislature has made a valid law
relating to or in connection with elections, the Commission shall act in conformity with such
law.
Statement 2 is correct: The Commission while exercising power shall conform to the rule of
law, act bona fide and be amenable to the norms of natural justice.

Electoral Bond is a financial instrument for making donations to political parties. The
bonds are issued in multiples of Rs. 1,000, Rs. 10,000, Rs. 1 lakh, Rs. 10 lakh and Rs. 1 crore
without any maximum limit. State Bank of India is authorised to issue and encash these

bonds, which are valid for fifteen days from the date of issuance. These bonds are
redeemable in the designated account of a registered political party. The bonds are
available for purchase by any person (who is a citizen of India or incorporated or established
in India) for a period of ten days each in the months of January, April, July and October as
may be specified by the Central Government.
• A person being an individual can buy bonds, either singly or jointly with other
individuals.
• Donor’s name is not mentioned on the bond.

The Right to protest peacefully is enshrined in the Indian Constitution—Article 19(1)(a)
guarantees the freedom of speech and expression; Article 19(1)(b) assures citizens the right
to assemble peaceably and without arms. Article 19(2) imposes reasonable restrictions on
the right to assemble peaceably and without arms.
Article 20 of the Indian Constitution deals with the protection of those who have been
convicted of crimes. Only proceedings in front of a court of law or judicial tribunal are
protected from double jeopardy.

NOTA votes do not affect the election results even if the NOTA votes exceed 50% of
the total votes cast. The winner is selected on the basis of rest of votes by first past the post
system.

For election to Lok Sabha, a nomination paper can be filed by any citizen whose
name appears in the electoral rolls of any parliamentary constituency, according to section
4 (d) of the Representation of People Act, 1951.

The Political Affairs Committee often described as a “Super-Cabinet” is the most
powerful committee. It usually deals with all policy matters pertaining to domestic and
foreign affairs of India.

‘Shadow cabinet’ is an unique institution formed by the British cabinet
system. It is formed by the opposition party to balance the ruling cabinet and to prepare its
members for future ministerial office. No such institution exists in India.

The Fundamental Duties cannot be enforced by writs. They have been defined as the moral
obligations of all the citizens to help, promote a spirit of patriotism and to uphold the unity
of India.

The federal system in the constitution was adopted due to two main reasons: the
large size of the country and its socio-cultural diversity. K.C. Wheare described India as a
quasi-federal state.

When an ordinary bill, which has originated in the council and was sent to the
assembly, is rejected by the assembly, the bill gets lapsed.

Bicameralism is an essential feature of a federal system of government.
A bicameral legislature refers to the legislature which has two separate assemblies,
chambers, or houses. India has bicameral legislature at centre and few states (which have
legislative assemblies and legislative council). Bicameralism is considered to be an essential
feature of federalism.

The term guillotine originally referred to an apparatus designed for
executions by beheading. In legislative parlance, guillotine means to bunch together and
fast-track the passage of financial business. It is a fairly common procedural exercise in Lok
Sabha during the Budget Session. Once the guillotine is applied, any remaining demands for
grants are put to vote without further discussion. This ensures that the budget is passed
within the allocated time, and the government can continue its work without any delay.
Once the House is done with these debates, the Speaker applies the “guillotine”,
and all outstanding demands for grants (discussed or not) and undiscussed clauses of a
bill/resolution are put to vote at once in order to save time.

The judges of Supreme Court are appointed by President (which means see the Cabinet) in
consultation with the numbers of the judiciary itself (i.e. judges of the Supreme Court and
high courts). Hence statement 1 is correct.
Statement 2 is incorrect, as a Supreme court judge can be removed by the president after a
parliament resolution. The constitution provides that a judge can be removed only by an
order of the president, based on a motion passed by both houses of parliament.
The salaries, allowances and pensions of the judges and the staff as well as all the
administrative expenses of the Supreme Court are charged on the Consolidated Fund of

India. Thus, they are non-votable by the Parliament (though they can be discussed by it).
Hence statement 3 is correct.
The Chief Justice of India can appoint officers and servants of the Supreme Court without
any interference from the executive he can also prescribe their condition of service. Hence
statement 4 is incorrect.

Original jurisdiction of a court refers to a matter for which the particular court is
approached first. In the case of the Supreme Court in India, its original jurisdiction is covered
under Article 131. It involves the following cases:
• Any dispute between the Indian Government and one or more States.
• Any dispute between the Indian Government and one or more States on one side
and one or more States on the other side.
• Any dispute between two or more States.
• Article 32 of the Constitution provides original jurisdiction to the SC for matters
regarding the enforcement of Fundamental Rights.
• The SC can issue writs, directions, or orders including writs in the nature of
mandamus, habeas corpus, quo warranto, prohibition and certiorari.

• The SC also has the power to direct the transfer of a criminal or civil case from the
High Court in one State to the High Court in another State.
• It can also transfer cases from one subordinate court to another State High Court
• If the SC deems that cases involving the same questions of law are pending before it
and one or more High Courts, and that these are significant questions of law, it can
withdraw the cases before the High Court or Courts and dispose off all these cases
itself.
• The Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 gives SC the authority to initiate
international commercial arbitration.
The following dispute does not come under the Original Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court:
• Disputes arising from any treaty.
• Interstate water dispute.
• The matter is related to the finance committee.
• Commercial dispute between centres, states, or states.

Following are the qualifications required to become the judge of the Supreme Court:
• He must be a citizen of India.
• He should have worked as a judge of a High court for atleast 5 years or,
• He should have worked as an advocate of High Court for atleast 10 years or,
• He is in the opinion of the President a distinguished Jurist.
Constitution has not prescribed the minimum age for the appointment of judges.
Tenure of supreme court judges: 65 years of age.

The Supreme Court has declared the power of judicial review as a basic feature of
the Constitution or an element of the basic structure of the Constitution. Hence, the
power of judicial review cannot be curtailed or excluded, even by a constitutional
amendment.
Judicial review is originated in the USA. It was propounded for the first time in the famous
case of Marbury v. Madison 1803 by John Marshall, the chief justice of American Supreme
court. In India, on the other hand, the constitution itself confers the power of judicial review
on the judiciary (both the Supreme Court and high court).
It can’t be curtailed or excluded even by a constitutional amendment, because Supreme
Court has declared that the power of judicial review as a basic feature of the constitution.

The scope of the pardoning power of the President under Article 72 is wider than the
pardoning power of the Governor under Article 161 which differs in the following two ways:
Pardon: It removes both the sentence and the conviction and completely absolves the
convict from all sentences, punishments and disqualifications.

Commutation: It denotes the substitution of one form of punishment for a lighter form.
For example, a death sentence may be commuted to rigorous imprisonment, which in turn
may be commuted to a simple imprisonment.
Remission: It implies reducing the period of sentence without changing its character. For
example, a sentence of rigorous imprisonment for two years may be remitted to rigorous
imprisonment for one year.
Respite: It denotes awarding a lesser sentence in place of one originally awarded due to
some special fact, such as the physical disability of a convict or the pregnancy of a woman
offender.
Reprieve: It implies a stay of the execution of a sentence (especially that of death) for a
temporary period. Its purpose is to enable the convict to have time to seek pardon or
commutation from the President.

When a bill is introduced in the Parliament, Parliament can pass the bill and before
the bill becomes an act, it has to be presented to the Indian President for his approval. It is
up to the President of India to either reject the bill, return the bill or withhold his/her assent
to the bill. The choice of the President over the bill is called the veto power. Veto Power of
the President of India is guided by Article 111 of the Indian Constitution.
Absolute Veto: The power of the President to withhold the assent to the bill is termed as his
absolute veto
Suspensive Veto: The power of the President to return the bill to the Parliament with or
without consideration is called suspensive veto
Pocket Veto: The power of the President to not act upon the bill is termed as a pocket
veto.

Only money bills do not require the approval of the Rajya Sabha. All bills will have to be
sent to the Rajya Sabha, and have to be passed in both Houses before being sent for
presidential assent. However, in the case of money bills, Rajya Sabha’s approval is not
required.

Article: 243 ZM: Audit of accounts of co-operative societies
(1) The Legislature of a State may, by law, make provisions with respect to the
maintenance of accounts by the co-operative societies and the auditing of such
accounts at least once in each financial year.

(2) The Legislature of a State shall, by law, lay down the minimum qualifications and
experience of auditors and auditing firms that shall be eligible for auditing accounts
of the co-operative societies.
(3) Every co-operative society shall cause to be audited by an auditor or auditing firms
referred to in clause (2) appointed by the general body of the co-operative society:

Provided that such auditors or auditing firms shall be appointed from a panel approved by a
State Government or an authority authorised by the State Government in this behalf.
(4) The accounts of every co-operative society shall be audited within six months of
the close of the financial year to which such accounts relate.
(5) The audit report of the accounts of an apex co-operative society, as may be
defined by the State Act, shall be laid before the State Legislature in the manner,
as may be provided by the State Legislature, by law.

Assent to Money Bill: The President may either give or withhold assent to a Money Bill.
Under the Constitution of India, a Money Bill cannot be returned to the House by the
President for reconsideration.
Assent to Constitutional Amendment Bill: In the case of such bills, the President must give
assent. He cannot return the bill or withhold it (unlike ordinary bills). After this, the bill
becomes a Constitutional Amendment Act and the Constitution stands amended in
accordance with the terms of the Act.

The Orissa Forest Act was first passed in 1972. It received the assent of the President
of India on June 29, 1972, and was published in the Orissa Gazette Extraordinary on July 14,
1972. This Act consolidated and amended the laws related to forest protection and
management in the state.

Maharashtra was the first state to introduce Lokayukta through The Maharashtra
Lokayukta and Upa-Lokayuktas Act in 1971.

Odisha became the first state to enact the Lokayukta Bill after the central act was passed in
Parliament.
The Odisha Lokayukta Act,2014 came into force with effect from 7th July, 2018. ln
exercise of the powers conferred by sub-sectioh (1) of section 3 of the Odisha Lokayukta

Act,2014 , the State Government do hereby establish a body called the Lokayukta for the
State of Odisha with effect from the 28th February, 2019.
LOKAYUKTAS
• The Lokayukta (also Lok Ayukta) ( lokāyukta, “civil commissioner") is an anti
corruption ombudsman organization in the Indian states.
• 1st in Maharashtra in 1971
• Odisha passed Act in 1970 but came into force in 1983
• Structural Variations not same in all the states
• Appointed by the governor in consultation with chief justice of HC & leader of
Opposition of legislative assembly
• Once appointed, cannot be dismissed nor transferred by the government, and
can only be removed by passing an impeachment motion by the state assembly.
• Term-05 Years or 65 Yrs of age whichever is earlier (Not Eligible for
reappointment)
• No uniformity regarding the jurisdiction of lokayukta
• Some states have included CMs & some have excluded
• Ministers and higher civil servants are included
• Members of state legislatures in some states
• Authorities of the local bodies, corporations, companies and societies are
included

• Annual report to Governor which will be placed before state legislature
(responsible for SLA)

• Takes the help of the state investigating agencies
• Can call for relevant files and documents from the state government
departments

• Only advisory and not binding.
• The Karnataka Lokayukta is considered the most powerful Lokayukta in the
country.

The Present Chairperson of the Lokayukta of the State of Odisha is Hon'ble Shri
Justice Ajit Singh. Who assumed charge on 3rd of March, 2019

PESA ACT OF 1996 (EXTENSION ACT): The provisions of Part IX of the constitution relating
to the Panchayats are not applicable to the Fifth Schedule areas. However, the Parliament

may extend these provisions to such areas, subject to such exceptions and modifications as
it may specify. Under this provision, the Parliament has enacted the “Provisions of the
Panchayats (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act”, 1996, popularly known as the PESA Act
or the Extension Act.
At present, ten states have Fifth Schedule Areas. These are: Andhra Pradesh,
Telangana, Chhatisgarh, Gujarat, Himachal Pradesh, Jharkhand, Madhya Pradesh,
Maharashtra, Odisha and Rajasthan. All the ten states have enacted requisite compliance
legislations by amending the respective Panchayati Raj Acts.

State Election Commission consist of the State Election Commissioner.
State Election Commissioner: Sri Madhusudan Padhi, IAS (Retd.)

The minimum age of membership in the Legislative Assembly is 25 years, whereas, the
minimum age of membership in the Legislative Council is 30 years.
At present, only six states of our country have a legislative council. They are Andhra
Pradesh, Telangana, Karnataka, Maharashtra, Bihar, and Uttar Pradesh.
Odisha has no legislative council of state.

Nov 2018: The Odisha state assembly unanimously passed a resolution seeking 33 percent
reservation for women in legislative assemblies and the Parliament.
Jan 2022: The Odisha government has reserved 50 per cent of zilla parishad chairperson
posts for women.

The following comes under governor executive powers:
1. Every executive action that the state government takes, is to be taken in his name.
2. How an order that has been taken up his name is to be authenticated, the rules for the same
can be specified by the Governor.
3. He may/may not make rules to simplify the transaction of the business of the state
government.
4. Chief Ministers and other ministers of the states are appointed by him.
5. It is his responsibility to appoint Tribal Welfare Minister in the states of:
• Chattisgarh
• Jharkhand
• Madhya Pradesh
• Odisha
1. He appoints the advocate general of states and determines their remuneration
2. He appoints the following people:
• State Election Commissioner
• Chairman and Members of the State Public Service Commission
• Vice-Chancellors of the universities in the state
3. He seeks information from the state government
President’s rule in the state.
4. A constitutional emergency in the state is recommended to the President by him.
5. The governor enjoys extensive executive powers as an agent of the President during the
The following are the legislative powers of the governor:
1. It’s in his power to prorogue the state legislature and dissolve the state legislative
assemblies
2. He addresses the state legislature at the first session of every year
3. If any bill is pending in the state legislature, Governor may/may not send a bill to the state
legislature concerning the same
4. If the speaker of the legislative assembly is absent and the same is Deputy Speaker, then
Governor appoints a person to preside over the session
5. As President nominates 12 members in Rajya Sabha, Governor appoints ⅙ of the total
members of the legislative council from the fields of:
• Literature

• Science
• Art
• Cooperative Movement
• Social Service
6. As President nominates 2 members in the Lok Sabha, Governor nominates 1 member in
state legislative assembly from Anglo-Indian Community.
7. He can consult Election Commission for the disqualification of members
8. With respect to the bill introduced in the state legislature, he can:
• Give his assent
• Withhold his assent
• Return the bill
• Reserve the bill for the President’s consideration (In instances where the bill introduced in
the state legislature endangers the position of state High Court.)

National Emergency’s Impact on Fundamental Rights
Article 358-
• It deals with the suspension of fundamental rights guaranteed under article 19 of the
constitution.
• As per Article 358, under the emergency provision, article 19 is automatically
suspended when the proclamation of emergency is made i.e., it does not require any
separate order of suspension.
• Condition- There is one condition, article 358 comes under the role only when
External Emergency is operational. That clearly means that article 19 is suspended
only when there is an external emergency and not an internal emergency.
Article 359-
• It deals with the suspension of other fundamental rights except for articles 20 and
21. It requires a separate order for suspension and only those fundamental rights are
suspended that are mentioned under the presidential order.
• Such an order of suspension of fundamental rights requires the approval of
parliament.
• The suspension could be for the duration of the emergency or could be for a shorter
duration.
• 44th Amendment Act 1978 says- President cannot suspend the right to move to
court for the enforcement of fundamental rights under article 20 (protection in
respect of conviction of offence) and article 21 (right to life and personal liberty).

Article 74 (COM to aid and advise President): The advice tendered by Ministers to the
President shall not be inquired into in any court. The President may require the COM to
reconsider such advice and the President shall act in accordance with the advice tendered
after such reconsideration.
Article 75 (Other Provisions as to Ministers):
• The PM shall be appointed by the President and the other Ministers shall be
appointed by the President on the advice of the PM.
• The total number of ministers, including the Prime Minister, in the COM shall not
exceed 15% of the total strength of the Lok Sabha.
• This provision was added by the 91st Amendment Act of 2003.
• A minister who is not a member of the Parliament (either house) for any period of six
consecutive months shall cease to be a minister.
Article 77 (Conduct of Business of the Government of India): The President shall make
rules for the more convenient transaction of the business of the Government of India, and
for the allocation among Ministers of the said business.
Article 78 (Duties of Prime Minister): To communicate to the President all decisions of the
COM relating to the administration of the affairs of the Union and proposals for legislation.
Article 88 (Rights of Ministers as Respects the Houses): Every minister shall have the right
to speak and take part in the proceedings of either House, any joint sitting of the Houses
and any Committee of Parliament of which he may be named a member. But he shall not be
entitled to vote.

Besides sharing of taxes between the Centre and the states, the Constitution provides
for grants-in-aid to the states from the Central resources. There are two types of grants-in
aid, viz, statutory grants and discretionary grants:
Statutory Grants:
• Article 275 empowers the Parliament to make grants to the states which are in
need of financial assistance and not to every state. Also, different sums may be
fixed for different states. These sums are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India
every year.
• Apart from this general provision, the Constitution also provides for specific grants
for promoting the welfare of the scheduled tribes in a state or for raising the level of
administration of the scheduled areas in a state including the State of Assam.
• The statutory grants under Article 275 (both general and specific) are given to the
states on the recommendation of the Finance Commission.
Discretionary Grants:
• Article 282 empowers both the Centre and the states to make any grants for any
public purpose, even if it is not within their respective legislative competence.
• Under this provision, the Centre makes grants to the states. The Centre is under no
obligation to give these grants and the matter lies within its discretion.
• Notably, the discretionary grants form the larger part of the Central grants to the
states (when compared with that of the statutory grants).

Madras High Court recently ruled that A High Court, under Article 226 does not have
the power to issue a direction to the Centre to invoke Article 355.
• Article 226 empowers the High Courts to issue writs for the enforcement of the
Fundamental Rights and ordinary legal right.
• High court may refuse to exercise its writ jurisdiction since Article 226 is
discretionary.

•A High Court does not have the power to issue directions to the Union Government
to invoke Article 355. Article 355 imposes a duty on the Centre to ensure that the
government of every state is carried on in accordance with the provisions of the
Constitution. The decision of whether or not to invoke Article 355 is a political one,
and it rests with the Union government.
• High courts under Article 226 can declare a law unconstitutional and invalid on the
ground of contravention of any of the Fundamental Rights.

All High courts in India have a territorial jurisdiction not confined to a single state.
Union territories jurisdiction would come under different state’s high court. Hence,
statement 1 is incorrect.
The district court is also a court of sessions when it exercises its jurisdiction on
criminal matters under the Code of Criminal Procedure. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Deputy Speaker is also elected by the Lok Sabha itself from amongst its members. He
is elected after the election of the Speaker has taken place. As per the Rules of Procedure
and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, the date of election of the Deputy Speaker is fixed by
the Speaker. The Deputy Speaker performs the duties of the Speaker’s office when it is
vacant. He also acts as the Speaker when the latter is absent from the sitting of the House.
In both cases, he assumes all the powers of the Speaker. He also presides over the joint
sitting of both Houses of Parliament, in case the Speaker is absent from such a sitting.
It should be noted here that the Deputy Speaker is not subordinate to the Speaker. He is
directly responsible to the House. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
The Deputy Speaker is entitled to a regular salary and allowance fixed by Parliament and
charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India. Hence statement 2 is correct.
The Speaker and the Deputy Speaker, while assuming their offices, do not make and
subscribe to any separate oath or affirmation.

Article 43 of the Indian Constitution provides that the State shall endeavor to secure, by
suitable legislation or economic organization a living wage for all workers, agricultural,
industrial, or otherwise. It is a part of the Directive Principle of State Policy and thus it is not
a Fundamental Right. The living wage has not been defined by the Constitution but is
considered to mean a wage that provides not only basic essentials like food, clothing, and
shelter but also a measure of frugal comfort including education for children, protection
against ill health, requirements of essential social needs, etc. Hence option (c) is the correct
answer.

The concept is contradistinguished with minimum wage, which means a wage sufficient to
cover bare physical needs. Fixing the minimum wage has been characterized as the first step
in the direction of fulfilling the mandate of Article 43.
Article 44: It comes under the Directive Principles of State Policy. It expects that the state
shall endeavor to secure for citizens a uniform civil code throughout the territory of India.
Article 23: It is a fundamental right. It prohibits the trafficking of human beings and forced
labor.
Article 24: It is a fundamental right. It provides for the prohibition of the employment of
children in factories, etc. No child below the age of 14 years shall be employed in work in
any factory or mine or engaged in any other hazardous employment.

The Parliament of India acquires the power to legislate on any item in the State List
in the national interest if a resolution to that effect is passed by the Rajya Sabha by a
majority of not less than two-thirds of its members present and voting.

Special Powers of Rajya Sabha : The Rajya Sabha has been given four exclusive or special
powers that are not enjoyed by the Lok Sabha:
• Rajya Sabha can authorise the Parliament to make a law on a subject enumerated
in the State List (Article 249).
• It can authorise the Parliament to establish new All-India Services that are shared
by the Centre and the states (Article 312).
• It can act on its own to remove the vice president. In other words, a resolution to
remove the vice-president may only be submitted in the Rajya Sabha and not in the
Lok Sabha (Article 67).
• During emergency situation: If the President issues a proclamation imposing national
emergency, president's rule, or financial emergency at a time when the Lok Sabha
has been dissolved, or the dissolution of the Lok Sabha occurs within the period
allowed for its approval, the proclamation can remain effective even if it is approved
solely by the Rajya Sabha (Articles 352, 356 and 360).
Note: Except for financial concerns and jurisdiction over the council of ministers, the Rajya
Sabha's powers and status are generally equal and coordinated with that of the Lok Sabha.
Other Powers of Rajya Sabha
• Even though the Rajya Sabha has been given less powers as compared with the Lok
Sabha, its utility is supported on the following grounds:
• Safety Valve of India’s Federal Polity” In addition to the well recognised examples of
responsible administration and judicial review, the Rajya Sabha is an important
component of the constitutional checks and balances structure. Unlike the president,
legislature, and judiciary, the Council of States operates as a safety valve inside the
legislative, reducing federal tensions.
• The founders of the Indian constitution planned to construct a house that would
operate as a revisionary house to check the lower house's hasty legislation, which
may be passed under populist pressures.
• Parliament is not simply a legislative body, but also a deliberative one, allowing
members to discuss important public issues. As a result, the Upper House's job is to
be a deliberative body in addition to balancing the Lok Sabha's "fickleness and
enthusiasm."
• Representing the Vulnerable Sections: In the Lok Sabha, women, religious, ethnic,
and linguistic minorities are underrepresented (due to first past the post-election
system). As a result, an indirect election to the Rajya Sabha (through propositional
representation) would allow them to participate in the nation's legislative process.

The 96th Amendment Act of 2011 substituted “Odia” for “Oriya”.
Odia has been designated a classical language, on the basis of having a long literary
history and not having borrowed extensively from other languages since 2014.

Treaties that deal with the denuclearization of geographical regions:

• Antarctic Treaty(1959) : The Antarctic Treaty, signed in 1959, designates Antarctica
as a continent dedicated to peace and scientific exploration.
• Outer Space Treaty – Treaty on Principles Governing the Activities of States in the
Exploration and Use of Outer Space, including the Moon and Other Celestial Bodies
(1967)
• Moon Agreement – Agreement Governing the Activities of States on the Moon and
Other Celestial Bodies (1979)
• Seabed Treaty – Treaty on the Prohibition of the Emplacement of Nuclear Weapons
and Other Weapons of Mass Destruction on the Sea-Bed and the Ocean Floor and in
the Subsoil thereof (1971)

The term ‘pressure group’ originated in the USA. A pressure group is a group
of people who are organised actively for promoting and defending their common interest. It
is so called as it attempts to bring a change in the public policy by exerting pressure on the
government. It acts as a liaison between the government and its members.
The pressure groups are also called interest groups or vested groups. They are different
from the political parties in that they neither contest elections nor try to capture political
power. They are concerned with specific programmes and issues and their activities are
confined to the protection and promotion of the interests of their members by influencing
the government.
The pressure groups in India can be broadly classified into the following categories:
1. Business Groups (FICCI is an example)
2. Trade Unions
3. Agrarian Groups
4. Professional Associations
5. Student Organisations
6. Religious Organisations
7. Caste Groups
8. Tribal Organisations
9. Linguistic Groups
10. Ideology Based Groups
11. Anomic Groups

The Chief Justice of India and the Judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by
the President under clause (2) of Article 124 of the Constitution.

• 25 years is the minimum age required to become a member of the Lok Sabha.
• Under the Constitution, an individual cannot simultaneously be a member of
both Houses of Parliament (or a state legislature), or both Parliament and a
state legislature, or represent more than one seat in a House.
• A person belonging to Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribe can contest
elections from a general seal also, and not just with the reserved seat.
A member incurs disqualification under the defection law:
• If he voluntarily gives up the membership of the political party on whose ticket
he is elected to the House;
• If he votes or abstains from voting in the House contrary to any direction given
by his political party;
• If any independently elected member joins any political party; and
• If any nominated member joins any political party after the expiry of six months.

The Parliament determines the salary, other allowances, leave of absence, pension,
etc. of the Supreme Court judges. Hence statement (a) is correct.
The Parliament cannot alter any of these privileges and rights to the judge's disadvantage
after his appointment. Hence statement (b) is not correct.
Salaries, allowances, and pensions of the judges of the Supreme Court are charged on the
Consolidated Fund of India. Hence statement (c) is not correct.

Article 263 contemplates the establishment of an Inter-State Council to effect
coordination among the states and between Centre and states. Hence statement 1 is
correct.
Thus, the President can establish such a council if at any time it appears to him that the
public interest would be served by its establishment. He can define the nature of duties to
be performed by such a council and its organization and procedure.
The council’s function to enquire and advise upon inter-state disputes is complementary to
the Supreme Court’s jurisdiction under Article 131 to decide a legal controversy between
the governments.
The Council can deal with any controversy whether legal or non-legal, but its function is
advisory (including recommendations) unlike that of the court which gives a binding
decision. Hence statement 2 is correct.

The Constitution does not specify the strength of a High Court and leaves it to the
discretion of the President. The President determines the strength of High Court from time
to time depending upon its workload.

It is the President, not Lok Sabha, who appoints a member of parliament as acting
speaker if the post of speaker/deputy speaker is vacant until the next speaker/deputy
speaker is elected by the house.

According to the Indian Constitution, the President nominates 12 members to the Rajya
Sabha. Key points about the Rajya Sabha:

• Total number of members: 250
• Number of elected members: 238
• Number of nominated members: 12

The following are the features of Cabinet Committees:
• They are extra-constitutional in emergence. In other words, they are not mentioned
in the Constitution. However, the Rules of Business provide for their establishment.
Hence statement 1 is correct.
• They are of two types—standing and ad hoc. The former are of a permanent nature
while the latter are of a temporary nature. The ad hoc committees are constituted
from time to time to deal with special problems. They are disbanded after their task
is completed.
• They are set up by the Prime Minister according to the exigencies of the time and
requirements of the situation. Hence, their number, nomenclature, and composition
varies from time to time.
• Their membership varies from three to eight. They usually include only Cabinet
Ministers. However, the non-cabinet Ministers are not debarred from their
membership.
• They not only include the Ministers in charge of subjects covered by them but also
include other senior Ministers.
• They are mostly headed by the Prime Minister. Some times other Cabinet Ministers,
particularly the Home Minister or the Finance Minister, also acts as their Chairman.
But, in case the Prime Minister is a member of a committee, he invariably presides
over it. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

The Returning Officer of a Parliamentary or assembly constituency is
responsible for the conduct of elections in the Parliamentary or assembly constituency
concerned. The Election Commission of India nominates or designates an officer of the
Government or a local authority as the Returning Officer for each of the assembly and
parliamentary constituencies in consultation with the State Government / Union Territory
Administration. In addition, the Election Commission of India also appoints one or more
Assistant Returning Officers for each of the assembly and Parliamentary constituencies to
assist the Returning Officer in the performance of his functions in connection with the
conduct of elections.

Statement 1 is not correct: Martial law has not been defined anywhere in the
Constitution. It is implicit. Also, there is no specific or express provision in the Constitution
that authorizes the executive to declare Martial Law. However, Article 34 provides for the
restrictions on fundamental rights while Martial Law is in force in any area.
Statement 2 is correct: Both Martial Law and National Emergency can be imposed in some
specific area. However, the scope of National emergency is much more. It can be imposed in
the whole country as well.

A State Public Service Commission consists of a chairman and other members
appointed by the governor of the state. The Constitution does not specify the strength of
the Commission but has left the matter to the discretion of the Governor. Further, no
qualifications are prescribed for the commission's membership except that one-half of the
members of the commission should be such persons who have held office for at least ten
years either under the government of India or under the Government of a state. The
Constitution also authorizes the governor to determine the conditions of service of the
chairman and members of the Commission. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
Although the chairman and members of an SPSC are appointed by the governor, they can
be removed only by the President (and not by the governor). The President can remove
them on the same grounds and in the same manner as he can remove a chairman or a
member of the UPSC. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

In 1973, the Supreme Court ruled in Kesavananda Bharati case that there is a basic
structure of the Constitution and nobody—not even the Parliament (through
amendment)—can violate the basic structure. The Court did two more things. First, it said
that right to property (the disputed issue) was not part of basic structure and therefore
could be suitably abridged. Secondly, the Court reserved to itself the right to decide
whether various matters are part of the basic structure of the Constitution. This case is
perhaps the best example of how judiciary uses its power to interpret the Constitution.

Article 360 empowers the President to proclaim a Financial Emergency if he is
satisfied that a situation has arisen due to which the financial stability or credit of India or
any part of its territory is threatened. The 38th Amendment Act of 1975 made the
satisfaction of the President in declaring a Financial Emergency final and conclusive and not
questionable in any court on any ground. But, this provision was subsequently deleted by
the 44th Amendment Act of 1978 implying that the satisfaction of the President is not
beyond judicial review.

Fifteenth Finance Commission chairman NK Singh has called for a thorough review of
the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution in the wake of the current challenges of climate
change and the pandemic. Article 246 confers legislative powers on the Parliament and the
State Legislatures on the subjects enumerated in the Seventh Schedule.
In its 1988 report, Sarkaria Commission dedicated an entire chapter to legislative
relations, recording the grievances raised by various State Governments and political
parties. Its major recommendations were:

First, the residuary powers be transferred from the Union List to the Concurrent List,
except for the residuary power to impose taxes which should be retained in the Union
List.
Second, the States should be consulted by the Centre before the latter exercises its power
over Concurrent List entries.
Third, the Centre should limit the field it occupies with respect to Concurrent List entries to
only as much as is necessary for ensuring uniformity in basic issues of national policy, with
the details being left for state action.
• M.M. Punchhi commission, in 2010 recommended that the Union should only
transfer those subjects into the Concurrent List, which is central to achieving
demonstrable national interest.
• The 1971 report of the Rajamannar Committee, formally known as the Centre-State
Relations Inquiry Committee, put it thus: “The Committee is of the opinion that it is
desirable to constitute a High Power Commission, consisting of eminent lawyers and
jurists and elderly statesmen with administrative experience to examine the entries
of Lists I and III in the Seventh Schedule to the Constitution and suggest a
redistribution of the entries.

The summoning of Parliament is specified in Article 85 of the Constitution. The
power to convene a session of Parliament rests with the government. The decision is taken
by the Cabinet Committee on Parliamentary Affairs. This decision is formalized by the
President, in whose name MPs are summoned to meet for a session. During the first two
decades of Parliament, Lok Sabha met for an average of a little more than 120 days a year.
This has come down to approximately 70 days in the last decade.
India does not have a fixed parliamentary calendar. By convention, Parliament meets for
three sessions in a year the longest, being the Budget Session, the Monsoon Session, and
the Winter Session. It is only stated in Article 85 of the constitution that there should not be
a gap of more than six months between two sessions of Parliament. Hence, statement 2 is
not correct.
The 14th and 15th Lok Sabha saw 60% and 71% of bills referred to committees. This
number has dipped sharply to just 27% in the 16th Lok Sabha and just 11% in the 17th Lok
Sabha (2019- 2021). Hence, statement 1 is correct.
The National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution has recommended the
minimum number of sittings for Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha be fixed at 120 and 100
respectively.

The Fifth Schedule provides for the administration of tribal Areas in ten states in India,
including Andhra Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Gujarat, Himachal Pradesh, Jharkhand, Madhya
Pradesh, Maharashtra, Odisha, Rajasthan, and Telangana.
Article 244(1): The Governor of Odisha has special responsibility about the administration
of Scheduled Areas as provided in the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution.
The acquisition of land by non-tribal individuals or entities in tribal areas covered by the 5th
Schedule is prohibited unless the state governor gives prior approval. This provision is
designed to protect the land rights of tribal communities and prevent their exploitation.

The 42nd Amendment to the Constitution of India introduced an Article placing the
election of the Prime Minister beyond judicial review.

The 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, which was enacted in 1978, is one of the most
significant amendments to the Indian Constitution. It was enacted during the tenure of
Prime Minister Morarji Desai, in response to the controversial 42nd Amendment, which was
implemented under Prime Minister Indira Gandhi‘s administration during the 1975–1977
Emergency era. The 44th Amendment aimed to reverse many provisions that granted
excessive powers to the executive and undermined fundamental rights, restoring the
democratic balance of the Indian Constitution after the Emergency.
The Supreme Court of India struck down the 99th Amendment to the Constitution of India
which sought to give the executive and legislature more say in the appointment of judges,
as it was violative of the independence of judiciary.

ECONOMICALLY WEAKER SECTIONS (EWS) QUOTA:
EWS reservation was granted based on recommendations of Sinho commission
(submitted report in 2010).
The 10% EWS quota was introduced under the 103rd Constitution (Amendment) Act, 2019
by amending Articles 15 and 16. It inserted Article 15 (6) and Article 16 (6). It introduced
10% quota for EWS in education and public employment.

A function of the Pro-Tem Speaker of the Lok Sabha is to swear in the
members of the House and hold the charge till a regular Speaker is elected. Till a regular
Speaker is elected, a pro tem Speaker administers oath to a new House and conducts
proceedings.
Duties of pro tem speaker:
• The Pro-tem Speaker presides over the first sitting of the Lok Sabha, administers
the oath of office to the newly elected MPs.

• To conduct the vote for the speaker and deputy speaker.
• On the election of new Speaker, the office of the pro tem speaker ceases to exist.
• He also administers the floor test.

The Estimates Committee has 30 members and all these members are from Lok
Sabha (Lower House). There is no representation from Rajya Sabha (Upper House). PAC
committee was set up first in 1921 under the provisions of the Government of India Act of
1919. At present, it consists of 22 members (15 from the Lok Sabha and 7 from the Rajya
Sabha).

Newspapers, electricity and medicine are subjects of the concurrent list, while insurance
is a subject of the union list.

Originally there were 97 subjects now, it has 100 subjects. There are 66 subjects in the State
List. Earlier it had 61 subjects. There are 52 subjects under the concurrent list. The 42nd
Amendment Act 1976 transferred five subjects from the State List to the Concurrent List.
• Education
• Forest
• Protection of wild animals and birds
• Weights and measures and
• Administration of justice, constitution and organization of all courts except the
supreme court and the high courts

The Dialectic method is a conversation between two or more people who hold
opposing viewpoints on a subject yet want to establish the truth by reasoned discussion.
The dialectic method was employed by various philosophers including Plato's discussion
on Justice, Karl Marx's dialectical materialism, and the Hegelian dialectical method.
The ancient Greek philosopher Plato was identified with the first strands of dialectics. Plato
coined the term to describe the art of debate, in which participants endeavour to reach a
consensus by exchanging logical arguments. The Republic written by Plato is an excellent
example of this type of debate.
Thus, the Dialectic method was used for the first time in the writing of Plato.
The term dialectic used by Hegel refers to a contradiction between ideas that serves as the
determining force in their interaction.
Karl Marx and Engels proposed their own dialectical materialism thesis. According to Karl
Marx, Material is the reality behind change rather than an Idea. According to Marx and
Engels, Materialism is the polar opposite of idealism and includes any doctrine that sees
matter as reliant on mind or spirit, or that treats mind or spirit as capable of existing
independently of matter.

The United Nations General Assembly adopted the Universal Declaration of Human
Rights in the year 1948.
The General Assembly adopted it on 10 December 1948 through a resolution
known as the 'Universal Declaration of Human Rights. It was accepted by 48 countries
without any negative vote and eight states were absent. Due to the adoption of the
Declaration on 10 December, the whole world celebrates this date as Human Rights Day.
The impact of World War II triggered the establishment of the UDHR. The
Preamble of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights states that - The human rights
described in the Declaration are proclaimed as a common standard for all individuals and for
all nations.

Positive liberty means the ability and ability of a person to do any work in a positive way.
Positive liberty is based on the concept of exercise of freedom. This liberty assumes that
individuals should make use of the opportunities and there should be the least constraints
in the development of the personality of the individual.
Positive liberty is also called developmental liberty. Positive liberty is the opportunity to act
voluntarily but not to hinder the beauty of others.
Positive liberty refers to the situation in which a person is able to give his life the desired
form. Rousseau, Hayek, Kant etc. are associated with positive Liberty, while Marcuse is
associated with negative Liberty.

All India Services are mentioned in Article 312. Administrative Tribunals are
mentioned in Article 323A. Fundamental Duties are in Article 51A and Annual Financial
Statement (Budget) is  in Article 112.

73rd and 74th amendment of the constitution are responsible for the creation of
which of the following;
• State Election Commission ( Art- 243-K)
• District Planning Committee( Art- 243-ZD)
• State Finance Commission( Art- 243-I)
• State Election Commission for Municipalities ( Art- 243-ZA)
• State Financial Commission for Municipalities( Art- 243-Y)

Article 338 of the Constitution originally provided for the establishment of a Special Officer
for Scheduled Tribes and Scheduled Castes (SCs and STs) to look into any issues
pertaining to constitutional safeguards for the SCs and STs and to report to the President on
their workings. Later, the 65th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1990, provided for
the establishment of a high level multi-member National Commission for SCs and STs in the
place of a single Special Officer for SCs and STs.
Again, the 89th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2003, bifurcated the combined National
Commission for SCs and STs into two separate bodies, namely, the National Commission for
Scheduled Castes (under Article 338) and the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes
(under Article 338 A).
Article 338B of the Indian Constitution establishes the National Commission for Backward
Classes (NCBC) as a constitutional body. This commission is responsible for investigating and

monitoring issues related to the socially and educationally backward classes. The NCBC was
granted constitutional status through the 102nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 2018.

Breakdown of the policy-making process in India:
1. Problem Identification and Agenda Setting: The process begins with identifying a
problem or issue that needs addressing. This can involve various actors, including
government agencies, civil society organizations, and the public. Once a problem is

identified, it needs to be placed on the policy agenda. This involves prioritizing the issue and
making it a focus for policy development.
2. Policy Formulation: This stage involves developing potential solutions to the identified
problem. This can involve research, analysis, and consultation with experts and
stakeholders. Different policy options are considered, and their feasibility and effectiveness
are evaluated.
3. Policy Adoption: The chosen policy is formally adopted, often through legislation or
executive orders. This stage involves parliamentary approval or other relevant decision
making bodies.
4. Policy Implementation: The adopted policy is put into practice. This requires clear
coordination across government agencies and potentially non-government organizations.
Implementing the policy also involves establishing administrative structures, allocating
resources, and developing implementation plans.
5. Policy Evaluation: The effectiveness of the implemented policy is assessed. This can
involve regular assessments of policy objectives and outcomes. Evaluations may be
conducted by government agencies, external research firms, or other stakeholders.
6. Policy Maintenance and Modification: Based on evaluation results, the policy may be
modified or maintained. This stage can involve making adjustments to the policy or even
terminating it if it's found to be ineffective.

Amnesty International is an international non-governmental organization
focused on human rights. While they do address issues related to conflict and poverty as
they impact human rights, their primary focus is broader than the other options suggest.

The Research and Analysis wing is a foreign intelligence agency of India. It was
constituted on 21 September,1968 under the tenure of former Prime Minister Late Mrs
Indira Gandhi. It functions under Cabinet secretariat.
The Intelligence Bureau (IB) in India operates under the Ministry of Home Affairs. It
is India's domestic intelligence agency, responsible for internal security, counter
intelligence, and counter-terrorism. The IB reports directly to the Prime Minister of India.
The National Investigation Agency (NIA) is a central counter-terrorism agency
functioning under the Ministry of Home Affairs, Government of India. This article covers
quick facts on NIA, regional offices, jurisdiction and NIA Amendment Act 2019.

Scientific Socialism is attributed to Karl Marx. Karl Marx provided scientific
foundation to the idea of socialism. Karl Marx is also regarded as the father of communism.

On National Civil Services Day, the historic representation of women in civil services
was highlighted, with 74 women officers comprising 41% of the 2023 Indian Administrative
Service (IAS) batch. National Civil Services Day: It is observed on 21st April each year to
honor the dedication of civil servants.

Good Governance Day is observed in India annually on the twenty-fifth day of
December (25th December), the birth anniversary of former-Prime Minister Atal Bihari
Vajpayee. Good Governance Day was established in 2014 to honor Prime Minister Vajpayee
by fostering awareness among the Indian people of accountability in government.

Role of Right to Information (RTI )Act 2005: The law was passed by Parliament on 15 June
2005 and came fully into force on 12 October 2005.
Key Features of India’s RTI Act 2005 for Transparent Governance:
• Right to Information provides for the appointment of an information officer in each
department to provide information to the public on request.
• Right to Information fixes a 30-day deadline for providing information, the
deadline is 48 hours if information concerns the life or liberty of a person.
• Information will be free for people below the poverty line. For others, the fee will be
reasonable.
• The Act imposes an obligation on public agencies to disclose the information suo
moto to reduce requests for information.
• Right to Information provides for the establishment of a Central Information
Commission (CIC) and State Information Commissions. They will be independent
high-level bodies to act as appellate authorities and vested with the powers of a civil
court.
• The jurisdiction of the Commission extends over all Central Public Authorities.
• When it comes to the RTI Act, the CIC is the only appellate authority which may
declare a body as public authority if it is convinced that the organization fits into the
criteria for being under the RTI Act.
• The Act overrides the Official Secrets Act, 1923.
• The information commissions can allow access to the information if public interest
outweighs harm to protected persons.
• Any person who is a citizen of India can file an Right to Information
• All categories of exempted information to be disclosed after 20 years except cabinet
deliberations and information that affects security, strategic, scientific or economic
interests, relations with foreign states or leads to incitement of offense.

Under Section 135 of the Companies Act, 2013, certain companies in India are
mandated to spend a minimum of 2% of their average net profit of the preceding three
years on Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) activities. Specifically, this applies to
companies that have a net worth of 500 crore rupees or more, or an annual turnover of
1000 crore rupees or more, or a net profit of 5 crore rupees or more.

A Citizen Charter is a document outlining an organization's commitments to citizens
regarding the standards of services provided, accessibility, grievance redressal, and other
key aspects of service delivery.
In India, a Citizen's Charter is a voluntary declaration by government organizations

outlining their commitments to citizens regarding service standards, information, choice,
non-discrimination, accessibility, grievance redress, courtesy, and value for money. It's a
tool to improve public service delivery, increase transparency, and build accountability,
according to the Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances (DARPG).

The United Nations is an international organization founded in 1945 after the
Second World War by 51 countries committed to maintaining international peace and
security, developing friendly relations among nations and promoting social progress, better
living standards and human rights.
The United Nations has 193 Member States. These are all sovereign states that accept the
UN Charter and are able to carry it out. Two non-member observer states, the Holy See
(Vatican City) and Palestine, also maintain a presence within the UN system.